How do you compute trig ratios for angles greater than 90 degrees?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on computing trigonometric ratios for angles greater than 90 degrees, specifically addressing the confusion surrounding the sine and cosine functions in the second quadrant. The participants clarify that for an angle A in standard position, rotating it 90 degrees results in coordinates Q(-a, b) and that the sine and cosine functions can be derived from the acute reference angle. The key takeaway is that sin(90 + A) equals cos(A) and cos(90 + A) equals -sin(A), which can be understood through geometric relationships and the properties of the unit circle.

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Say I have an acute angle A in standard position in the first quadrant with a rotating arm of length r , terminating at coordinate P(a,b) . Now say I rotate it 90 degrees further from that position to the second quadrant , this ends up at coordinate Q(-a,b) . I draw perpendiculars from those two positions to the x-axis .

for the first triangle , sin A = b/r and cos A = a/r

as for the second triangle , why is sin (90+A) = a/r = cos A
and why is cos(90+A) = -b/r = -sin A

Im confused ... how can you compute the trig ratio for an angle greater than 90 degress ? Why not take the ratio for the acute angle (180 - (90+a))

Pls Help .
 
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pokemonDoom said:
Say I have an acute angle A in standard position in the first quadrant with a rotating arm of length r , terminating at coordinate P(a,b) . Now say I rotate it 90 degrees further from that position to the second quadrant , this ends up at coordinate Q(-a,b) .

Hi ! Welcome to PF! :smile:

No … (-a,b) is the reflection of (a,b) in the y-axis.

You want Q(b,-a).

Then everythihng will make sense! :smile:
 
hmm ... but that doesn't solve my problem ... I need to know why the so called "reference angle" or the "corresponding acute angle" actually works for angles greater than 90 degrees , when taking sines and cosines or tangents . Is there a geometric argument for it ?
 
Im not entirely sure what your question is; but if it boils down to "why is cos(x)=sin(x+90) ?", then you can answer this by looking at the graphs of the sine and cosine functions.
 
Heres my problem ...

For the triangle in the second quadrant , why does my book state

sin(90+theta) = a/r and cos(90+theta) = -b/r

when clearly (90+theta) isn't even one of the angles in the triangle ... ? This was what I meant when I said why not calculate (180-90-theta) ...

I don't get this part ... ! I've looked up 2/3 trig books by native authors (I live in Nepal) and they don't seem to explain why this is so ... and I have yet to find a good trig book on the internet ... Thanks a mil .
 
Last edited:
Hi pokemonDoom! :smile:
pokemonDoom said:
For the triangle in the second quadrant …

No … the triangle is not in the second quadrant … its base is still in the first quadrant, and its tip is in the second quadrant.

For an easy example, consider the two triangles OAB and OAC, where O = (0,0), A = (1,0), B = (1,1), and C = (-1,1). So OA = 1, and OB = OC = √2. Put D = (-1,0).

Then angle AOB = 45º, and angle AOC = 135º.

And cosAOB = OA/OB = 1/√2, cosAOC = AD/OC = -1/√2.

But sinAOB = AB/OB = 1/√2, sinAOC = DC/OC = 1/√2. :smile:
 
Hello Tim ,

Im confused ...

how can the cosine of <AOC be AD/OC ... if I know better , its probably a typo .

and in triangle-DOC (which lies squarely on the second quadrant of my graph) how is it that the sine of <AOC is equivalent to the sine of <DOC ... This is the question in the first place .

Many thanks .
 
pokemonDoom said:
Im confused ...

how can the cosine of <AOC be AD/OC ... if I know better , its probably a typo .

Hi pokemonDoom! :smile:

Yes … sorry … it should be cosAOC = OD/OC = -1/√2. :redface:
and in triangle-DOC (which lies squarely on the second quadrant of my graph) how is it that the sine of <AOC is equivalent to the sine of <DOC ... This is the question in the first place .

Because sin = opposite/hypotenuse.

The side opposite angle AOB is AB, and the side opposite angle AOC is DC.

And AB = DC, so sinAOB = sinAOC. :smile:

(and of course, the diagram works for any angle, not just 45º)
 
... I get it !

But isn't the angle opposite side DC <DOC ... ? I am not trying to sound dumb but what youre trying to say is exactly what the question is .

Why should sineAOC =CD/OC , when its perfectly legible that sineDOC = CD/OC .

In essence what youre trying to say is for any angle greater than 90 degrees , the ratio of that angle is equal to the ratio of the acute angle formed with the nearest x-axis ... ?? but why? is there a geometric proof of some kind ?? instead of just guessing that the ratios are equal ?
 

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