- #1
maline
- 436
- 69
I've heard the claim that the gauge freedom of the general Lagrangian can be used to derive the Lorentz force on a charged particle. I understand that Langrangian gauge freedom allows A⋅v -∇φ to be unaffected by the gauge freedom in defining the EM potentials, but this seems like a convenient result, not something that can be used as a derivation. Can someone clarify?