Gauge Invariance for field of *Uncharged* particles?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of gauge invariance in the context of a classical field representing uncharged particles. Participants explore the implications of gauge transformations on fields that do not carry electrical charge, particularly focusing on the relationship between the covariant and partial derivatives in the Lagrangian formulation.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant states that a complex classical field Φ is invariant under global phase changes but not under local phase changes, and questions whether uncharged particles can achieve gauge invariance.
  • Another participant argues that since uncharged particles are not affected by gauge transformations, the covariant derivative is equivalent to the partial derivative, suggesting that the kinetic term remains gauge invariant.
  • A third participant seeks clarification on whether gauge invariance is irrelevant for classical fields of uncharged particles.
  • A later reply asserts that gauge invariance is not irrelevant, explaining that while uncharged fields do not transform under gauge transformations, the Lagrangian must still be invariant, leading to the conclusion that the covariant derivative equals the partial derivative for uncharged fields.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the relevance of gauge invariance for uncharged particles, with some suggesting it is irrelevant while others argue it remains significant in terms of Lagrangian invariance. The discussion does not reach a consensus on this matter.

Contextual Notes

Participants discuss the implications of gauge transformations and the definitions of covariant and partial derivatives, but there are unresolved aspects regarding the broader implications of gauge invariance for uncharged fields.

LarryS
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A complex classical field Φ of particles is, by itself, invariant under global phase changes but not under local phase changes. It is made gauge invariant by coupling it with the EM potential, A, by substituting the covariant derivative for the normal partial derivative in the Lagrangian. But if the particles represented by Φ have zero electrical charge, the covariant derivative is the same as the normal derivative.

Does that mean that a classical field of uncharged particles cannot be made gauge invariant?

Thanks in advance.
 
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If it is uncharged it is not affected by the gauge transformation and therefore the covariant derivative is equivalent to the partial derivative. The kinetic term is still gauge invariant, because the field does not transform under gauge transformations.
 
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I think I understand. Are you saying that gauge invariance is irrelevant for classical fields representing a system of uncharged particles?
 
It is not irrelevant. It is just that an uncharged field does not transform under gauge transformations. If you have a local symmetry, the Lagrangian still needs to be invariant under gauge transformations, but this implies the covariant derivative being equal to the parial derivative. In general, the covariant derivative is given by ##D_\mu = \partial_\mu - i g A^a_\mu \tau^a## where ##\tau^a## is the representation of the gauge group generator in the relevant representation. An uncharged field corresponds to transforming under the trivial representation where ##\tau^a = 0##.
 

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