EM vector potential - covariant or contravariant?

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The discussion centers on whether the potentials in Maxwell's equations are components of a contravariant or covariant vector, specifically under the metric (+,-,-,-). The participants clarify that the vector potential A can be expressed in two forms, affecting the signs of its components and the resulting calculations. It is noted that the choice of sign convention impacts the invariant quantity A^{\mu}A_{\mu}, but does not switch covariant with contravariant. The conversation also highlights that magnetic potential coefficients can be treated as either covariant or contravariant in three-dimensional space without altering their signs. Ultimately, the choice of metric influences the representation but does not change the underlying physical invariance.
pellman
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Are potentials appearing in the Maxwell equations the components of a contravariant vector or a covariant vector?

Let us be specific. metric is (+,-,-,-) . Let us write the potentials which appear in the Maxwell equations as \Phi and \vec{A}=(A_x,A_y,A_z)

Is it then the case that

A^{\mu}=(\Phi,A_x,A_y,A_z)
A_{\nu}=(\Phi,-A_x,-A_y,-A_z)

or

A^{\mu}=(\Phi,-A_x,-A_y,-A_z)
A_{\nu}=(\Phi,A_x,A_y,A_z)


?
 
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Yes, but the OP is asking about sign conventions.

A is naturally a 1-form, and the sign is chosen such that F = dA. In index notation, this is

F_{\mu\nu} = \partial_\mu A_\nu - \partial_\nu A_\mu

Furthermore, the sign of F is chosen such that the Lorentz force law reads

\dot u_\mu = \frac{q}{m} F_{\mu\nu} u^{\nu}

and the 4-velocity u is naturally a (contravariant) 4-vector.
 
pellman said:
Are potentials appearing in the Maxwell equations the components of a contravariant vector or a covariant vector?

Let us be specific. metric is (+,-,-,-) . Let us write the potentials which appear in the Maxwell equations as \Phi and \vec{A}=(A_x,A_y,A_z)

Is it then the case that

A^{\mu}=(\Phi,A_x,A_y,A_z)
A_{\nu}=(\Phi,-A_x,-A_y,-A_z)

or

A^{\mu}=(\Phi,-A A^\mu_x,-A_y,-A_z)
A_{\nu}=(\Phi,A_x,A_y,A_z)
?
The A^\mu has all positive signs. Then the divergence of A is \partial_\mu A^\mu.
 
Last edited:
What effect does switching the signature have, from the perspective of calculation?
Would it switch covariant with contravariant?

The fields derived should be invariant surely, since it's just two ways of representing the same physical thing?
 
Changing the metric does not change that
A^\mu=[\phi,{\vec A}].
It would make A^\mu A_\mu={\vec A}^2-\phi^2
and p^\mu p_\mu=-m^2, which is why I don't like the
=-1,1,1,1 metric.
 
Last edited:
Jerbearrrrrr said:
What effect does switching the signature have, from the perspective of calculation?
Would it switch covariant with contravariant?

No, it only changes the sign of the invariant A^{\mu}A_{\mu}
 
Meir Achuz said:
which is why I don't like the
=-1,1,1,1 metric.

Amen! p^\mu p_\mu=-m^2 is obscene.
 
Meir Achuz said:
The A^\mu has all positive signs. Then the divergence of A is \partial_\mu A^\mu.

Thanks!
 
One thing of which you should be aware. The magnetic potential coefficients taken alone are equally covariant or contravariant. The subspace is three dimensions of space, and the space3 metric is (+++), so we can raise and lower indices without concern; the signs are unaltered. Ai=Ai. When this subspace metric becomes an entry in the two-by-two metric of space and time, we choose to assign coefficients of either -1 and 1 or 1 and -1 respective to choice.
 

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