Energy proportional to Amplitude squared?

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SUMMARY

The energy of a wave is definitively proportional to the amplitude squared, as derived from the principles of simple harmonic oscillators (SHO). The potential energy (PE) at maximum displacement is calculated using the formula PE = \frac{1}{2} kA^2, where k represents the spring constant. For electromagnetic (EM) waves, the energy density of the electric field E is proportional to E^2, and the energy density of the magnetic field B is proportional to B^2. This relationship is established through the work done to charge a parallel-plate capacitor or to increase current in a solenoid.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of simple harmonic oscillators (SHO)
  • Familiarity with Hooke's Law
  • Knowledge of energy density concepts in electric and magnetic fields
  • Basic calculus for integration
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of energy density in electric fields using parallel-plate capacitors
  • Explore the energy density derivation in magnetic fields using inductors
  • Learn about the relationship between amplitude and energy in different types of waves
  • Investigate the mathematical treatment of electromagnetic waves in classical physics
USEFUL FOR

Physics students, electrical engineers, and anyone interested in wave mechanics and electromagnetic theory will benefit from this discussion.

SamRoss
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Does anyone know a simple derivation that explains why the energy of a wave is proportional to the amplitude squared?
 
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Does "simple" allow for calculus?

A wave is a collection of simple harmonic oscillators. The energy of a SHO equals the potential energy at maximum displacement. The PE at maximum displacement is the work done by an external force in pushing the oscillator out from the equilibrium position to maximum displacement. The external force acts against the oscillator's internal force which obeys Hooke's Law F = -kx.

\int_0^A {F(x)dx} = \int_0^A {kx dx} = \frac{1}{2} kA^2
 
Why doesn't this work for EM waves ?
 
vin300 said:
Why doesn't this work for EM waves ?

Why should it? What constant would you introduce in place of k, bearing in mind that it must have the same unit, and there isn't a spring constant for an EM wave.
 
jtbell said:
\int_0^A {F(x)dx} = \int_0^A {kx dx} = \frac{1}{2} kA^2

Thanks for the quick reply. I was actually thinking of an EM wave, though. Do you know a derivation for that as well?
 
In general, not just in EM waves, the energy density of an electric field E is proportional to E^2, and the energy density of a magnetic field B is proportional to B^2. Introductory textbooks usually derive these by considering the external work it takes to charge up a parallel-plate capacitor so that it has a field E between the plates:

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/electric/capeng.html

or to increase the current flowing through a long solenoid (inductor) so it has a field B inside:

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/electric/indeng.html
 
cool, thanks
 

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