MHB *est amt of paint to a coat of paint 0.05 cm thick

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The discussion focuses on estimating the volume of paint required to cover a hemispherical dome with a diameter of 50 meters and a thickness of 0.05 cm. Using differentials, the estimated volume of paint needed is approximately 1.96 m³, calculated from the formula for the volume of a hemisphere. A comparison with the true value using a more precise calculation yields a similar result of about 1.9635 m³. Participants humorously note the challenges of applying such a thin coat uniformly on a curved surface. The thread highlights both mathematical estimation and practical considerations for painting.
karush
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Use differentials to estimate the amount of paint needed
to apply a coat of paint $$0.05 \text{ cm}$$ thick
to a hemispherical dome with a diameter of $$50\text{ m}$$
$\displaystyle V_h=\frac{1}{2} \cdot\frac{4}{3}\pi\text{r}^3 = \frac{4}{6}\pi\text{r}^3$
$dV_h = 2\pi\cdot r^2\cdot \text{dr}$
so if $$r=25\text{ m} = 2500\text{ cm}\text { and }dr = 0.05\text{ cm}$$ then
$dV_h = 2\pi \ 2500\text{ cm}^2\cdot 0.05\text{ cm}\approx 1.96\text{ m}^3$
or should $r=2500.05\text{ cm}$
 
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You did it correctly. I always like to, if possible, compare the approximate to the true value:

$$V=\frac{2\pi}{3}\left((r+\Delta r)^3-r^3 \right)$$

$$V=\frac{2\pi}{3}\left(2500.05^3-2500^3 \right)\text{ cm}^3\approx1.96353467866359\text{ m}^3$$

This is very close to the estimate.
 
(Rock)

Great thread! lol[I'm a painter and decorator, see, so I might just find a use for this... (Hug) ]
 
well a hemisphere would not be easy to paint especially .05 cm uniformly!

with a big brush I guess :cool:
 
karush said:
well a hemisphere would not be easy to paint especially .05 cm uniformly!

with a big brush I guess :cool:
Only one way to get such even coverage... Mr Bean has the answer: Mr Bean - Painting with Fireworks - YouTube

;)
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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