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How do you prove that angular velocity is just the time derivative of each Euler angle times the basis vector of its respective frame?
I remember it used to be perfectly clear to me a while back, but now I don't remember how the result was derived, and I couldn't find it in any of my books I looked so far.
Does anyone remember how the result was derived?
Thanks
I remember it used to be perfectly clear to me a while back, but now I don't remember how the result was derived, and I couldn't find it in any of my books I looked so far.
Does anyone remember how the result was derived?
Thanks