Eulerian velocities to Lagrangian velocities

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Homework Statement



Eulerian velocity: [tex]V_{1}=-z_{1}^{2}[/tex]

[tex]V_{1}=\frac{dz_{1}}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]z_{1}(t=0)=x_{1}[/tex]

This is supposed to become the Lagrangian velocity of:

[tex]z_{1}=\frac{x_{1}}{1+tx_{1}}[/tex]

I don't understand how to take the Eulerian velocity and transform it to Lagrangian.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



[tex]\frac{dz_{1}}{dt}+z_{1}^{2}=0[/tex]

After this, I don't know how to take this and move forward.

I've been working the problem for a day, and I still can't get any closer. I can take Lagrangian and transform it to Eulerian, but I don't know how to do the reverse. TJ Chung's General Continuum Mechanics book is poorly developed for examples and proofs.
 
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paccali said:

The Attempt at a Solution



[tex]\frac{dz_{1}}{dt}+z_{1}^{2}=0[/tex]

After this, I don't know how to take this and move forward.

This equation is separable, since it can be rewritten as

[tex]-\frac{dz_{1}}{z_{1}^{2}}=dt.[/tex]

You can integrate both sides and fix the integration constant with

[tex]z_{1}(t=0)=x_{1}.[/tex]
 
Nevermind, I figured out how to solve the problem using my old differential equations textbook. In case someone is curious, here's what I did:

I rearranged the terms so that like terms were on the same side:

[tex]\frac{dz_{1}}{dt}=-z_{1}^{2}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{dz_{1}}{-z_{1}^{2}}=dt[/tex]

I then integrated each side:

[tex]\int -\frac{1}{z_{1}^{2}}dz=\int dt[/tex]
[tex]\frac{1}{z_{1}}+C_{1}=t+C_{2}[/tex]

Since both sides had constants, I dropped one, and I then used the initial condition of [tex]z_{1}(t=0)=x_{1}[/tex] to solve for C

[tex]\frac{1}{z_{1}}+C=t[/tex]
[tex]\frac{1}{z_{1}}=t-C[/tex]
[tex]z_{1}=\frac{1}{t-C}[/tex]
[tex]z_{1}(0)=x_{1}=\frac{1}{0-C}[/tex]
[tex]C=-\frac{1}{x_{1}}[/tex]

I plugged in C above and got this equation for Lagrangian position:

[tex]z_{1}=\frac{1}{t+\frac{1}{x_{1}}}=\frac{x_{1}}{1+tx_{1}}[/tex]
 
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I just found what I did wrong, but thanks for the help nonetheless.