Eulerian velocities to Lagrangian velocities

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around transforming Eulerian velocities into Lagrangian velocities, specifically focusing on the equation V_{1}=-z_{1}^{2} and its relationship to z_{1}(t=0)=x_{1}. The original poster expresses confusion about how to perform this transformation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the separability of the differential equation \(\frac{dz_{1}}{dt}+z_{1}^{2}=0\) and consider integration as a method to progress. There are questions about how to effectively move from Eulerian to Lagrangian forms.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the integration process and the handling of initial conditions. The original poster later indicates they found a solution independently, but there is no explicit consensus on the approach taken.

Contextual Notes

The original poster mentions difficulties with the textbook used for reference, suggesting that the material may not provide sufficient examples or clarity on the topic.

paccali
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Homework Statement



Eulerian velocity: V_{1}=-z_{1}^{2}

V_{1}=\frac{dz_{1}}{dt}

z_{1}(t=0)=x_{1}

This is supposed to become the Lagrangian velocity of:

z_{1}=\frac{x_{1}}{1+tx_{1}}

I don't understand how to take the Eulerian velocity and transform it to Lagrangian.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



\frac{dz_{1}}{dt}+z_{1}^{2}=0

After this, I don't know how to take this and move forward.

I've been working the problem for a day, and I still can't get any closer. I can take Lagrangian and transform it to Eulerian, but I don't know how to do the reverse. TJ Chung's General Continuum Mechanics book is poorly developed for examples and proofs.
 
Last edited:
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paccali said:

The Attempt at a Solution



\frac{dz_{1}}{dt}+z_{1}^{2}=0

After this, I don't know how to take this and move forward.

This equation is separable, since it can be rewritten as

-\frac{dz_{1}}{z_{1}^{2}}=dt.

You can integrate both sides and fix the integration constant with

z_{1}(t=0)=x_{1}.
 
Nevermind, I figured out how to solve the problem using my old differential equations textbook. In case someone is curious, here's what I did:

I rearranged the terms so that like terms were on the same side:

\frac{dz_{1}}{dt}=-z_{1}^{2}
\frac{dz_{1}}{-z_{1}^{2}}=dt

I then integrated each side:

\int -\frac{1}{z_{1}^{2}}dz=\int dt
\frac{1}{z_{1}}+C_{1}=t+C_{2}

Since both sides had constants, I dropped one, and I then used the initial condition of z_{1}(t=0)=x_{1} to solve for C

\frac{1}{z_{1}}+C=t
\frac{1}{z_{1}}=t-C
z_{1}=\frac{1}{t-C}
z_{1}(0)=x_{1}=\frac{1}{0-C}
C=-\frac{1}{x_{1}}

I plugged in C above and got this equation for Lagrangian position:

z_{1}=\frac{1}{t+\frac{1}{x_{1}}}=\frac{x_{1}}{1+tx_{1}}
 
Last edited:
I just found what I did wrong, but thanks for the help nonetheless.
 

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