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Evidence for retrocausal interpretation of QM?

  1. Feb 11, 2015 #1
    This article about a recent experiment was just published the other day: http://phys.org/news/2015-02-hindsight-foresight-accurately-quantum-state.html

    I can't help but think that this is at least weak evidence in favour of the retrocausal interpretation. Of course other interpretations aren't falsified by this, but how would for instance Bohm Or Everett account for this result?
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 16, 2015 #2
    Thanks for the post! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
  4. Feb 18, 2015 #3
    Unfortunately, the phys.org article is very badly written. All the experiment did is show that if you use information from both before and after a measurement to guess the result of that measurement, your chances are much better than if you use only one of the two. Not terribly surprising and completely in accord with any interpretation you like.
  5. Feb 18, 2015 #4


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    If it was true what's suggested in the phys.org article, it was either big blunder or a sensational new result going beyond all of known physics. As all physical theories, also quantum theory is strictly causal. I suggest, to better read the original article to make sense of it. It's on the arXiv:

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