Graeme M said:
There are some excellent comments here for me to read and digest further. I thank those who have contributed so far, you have given me some excellent food for thought as well as a lot of further reading.
Mark44 and PeterDonis, the difficulty here is my effort to explain what I am thinking. I do realize my take on this is in all likelihood wrong, but at this stage you haven't shown me whether that is the case because I haven't made my argument clearly. I'll have nother quick stab at it.
For myself, your argument has seemed clear to me, but what's not clear is on what evidence you base your argument/opinion.
Graeme M said:
I assume that a brain of 20,000 years ago is the same as one from today. That has been largely confirmed by most here though DiracPool's comments suggest otherwise. But for the sake of discussion let's agree that an ancient braqin (20,000 years ago) is likely to be the same as today.
I completely agree that a man of today dropped 20,000 years ago would struggle to survive, if this really happened. For all sorts of reasons including that the locals might simply dispatch him. I also agree that the brain of 20,000 years ago has the same capacity or potential as one of today.
What I am contending is that HOW people think has changed. Yes knowledge has accumulated, but knowledge is useless without a means to apply it. An engineer, or a quantum physicist, must learn both the facts, and the methods for applying those. Teaching techniques have developed over time as we establish better ways to educate. And allied with this is the development of more complex language and other symbolic means to codify complex ideas and relationships, for example mathematics.
I imagine, without knowing what science may say, that a 40 year old brain has set up a pattern of internal connections and representations that are fairly 'fixed'. That is, once you've been taught what and how to think (and I mean this both in terms of specific skills and knowledge as well as more general matters of social relationships and behaviours), it is not easy to make major changes to those. Sort of like old dogs and new tricks.
A person of ancient times would have a way of thinking that has been set by his time. He would know far fewer actual facts and he would have quite limited ways to apply those facts.
I'm not sure that I agree with "far fewer facts" and "quite limited ways to apply those facts."
On what do you base this conclusion? As a counter to your claim of "far fewer facts," and using Aleut and Eskimo cultures as a proxy for early mankind, my limited knowledge of their languages is that they had 15+ distinct words for snow, which suggests a pretty sophisticated understanding of their environment, not to mention that these societies were able to make a living for thousands of years in an environment that none of us participating in this discussion would be able to survive for more than a day or two.
Graeme M said:
I think the further back we go, the more limited would be his abilities in this respect. Once we get back to when language had not developed, I imagine his thinking would have been quite rudimentary by today's standards.
Regardless of how the brain is structured or whether it has changed appreciably in the past 50,000 years, it is language that allows us to introspect in more complex ways. It allows us to do complex analytical thinking, it permits us to share knowledge and pass it on, and it enables a greater level of shared understanding and cooperation.
Thus, a modern man with a more developed mind would, if placed in the distant past and given the support to learn local skills and knowledge, be able to do so. I think he may not be able to grasp the nuances of local social customs, but I think he should be able to learn all known facts and apply those.
Again, based on what evidence? What you're calling "nuances" I am arguing would be incorrect answers in the pass/fail exam of life. I have questioned your thinking in some of my previous replies, none of which you have replied to. Why do you believe that a modern man would be able to learn "all known facts" and apply them?
Please back up your claims with some evidence.
I have given reasons for why I believe this is not plausible, based on the evident ability of those early people to survive in a harsh environment, and the equally evident inability of modern people to survive outside of civilization.
My take on your claims is that you place very little significance on what early mankind had to know to survive, such as what plants could be eaten or used for medicine, how to capture or kill animals for food, how to make clothing, how to make shelters, and many other skills. Do you know how to do any of these things? I would consider your opinion more valid if you were speaking from experience. On the other hand, if someone has no knowledge of, or appreciation of the difficulty of these skills, it is very easy to describe them as easily learned.
Graeme M said:
I do not think an ancient person brought into today could do so. But I aghree that 1 or 100000 babies from then raised today should display equal cognitive abilities as a modern person.
I think the mind has developed, or evolved, over time. Which in a mechanical sense means that the brain's processing capacity, while unchanged, is utilised in more complex ways. In a clumsy analogy, I mean that it is like a powerful computer that in the past was used to run a simple program while today it runs a more complex program.
Not a good metaphor. Assuming we're talking about the same computer, it would have the same instruction set then and now, so it would not be able to run a more complex program now.
Graeme M said:
However, there is one curious wrinkle to that idea which I think might be sensitive to discuss. I think what holds true due to time, also holds true today.
A question that
@berkeman asked earlier is:
what is your motivation here?