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Having trouble with something that's likely too trivial, but here goes..
In Optimization theory and nonlinear programming [Sun, Yuan] the following is discussed at section 8.2.
Consider the optimisation of f:\mathbb R^n\to\mathbb R with constraints g_j:\mathbb R^n\to\mathbb R, g_j(x) = 0, j=1,\ldots , m.
A feasible set X is a subset of \mathbb R^n which contains all those points that satisfy the system of constraints. The following definition is given.
A feasible direction at x^*\in X is a straight line section containing x^* that consists of ONLY feasible points. Formally, there exists a direction h\in\mathbb R^n\setminus\{0\} (may assume to be normed) with
<br /> \exists \delta >0, \forall \eta (0\leq \eta\leq \delta \implies x^* + \eta h\in X)<br />
Only this definition is given, so one naturally asks, do such feasible directions even exist, in general?
Further development is done via the language of sequences.
Call a direction h\neq 0 to be a sequential feasible direction at x^*\in X if there exist sequences h_k\to h such that for every vanishing sequence \eta _k >0 it holds that x^* + \eta_k h_k\in X.
Evidently, the sequence converges to x^*, but the following is problematic for me.
Set x_k := x^* + \eta_kh_k. If we set \eta _k := \|x_k-x^*\| then
<br /> \frac{x_k-x^*}{\|x_k-x^*\|} \xrightarrow[k\to\infty]{} h?!\tag{E}<br />
What I understand is that we have a sequence of normed elements, so if it converges to anything, the limit has to be nonzero, but why does it converge?
Let's give some context. Suppose x^*\in X is not a local maximum point (subject to said constraints), then by definition
<br /> \forall k\in\mathbb N,\exists x_k\in X : \|x^*-x_k\|\leq \frac{1}{k}\quad \&\quad f(x_*) < f(x_k)<br />
So, we can construct a sequence of feasible points that converges to x^*. May we assume without loss of generality, this sequence has a limiting direction? More formally, if we write x_k = x^* + \eta_ kh_k, k\in\mathbb N, may we assume \exists \lim _k h_k\in\mathbb R ^n\setminus\{0\}?
So, like I said, probably something trivial, but I really don't understand why we may assume the argument that culminates in (E).
In Optimization theory and nonlinear programming [Sun, Yuan] the following is discussed at section 8.2.
Consider the optimisation of f:\mathbb R^n\to\mathbb R with constraints g_j:\mathbb R^n\to\mathbb R, g_j(x) = 0, j=1,\ldots , m.
A feasible set X is a subset of \mathbb R^n which contains all those points that satisfy the system of constraints. The following definition is given.
A feasible direction at x^*\in X is a straight line section containing x^* that consists of ONLY feasible points. Formally, there exists a direction h\in\mathbb R^n\setminus\{0\} (may assume to be normed) with
<br /> \exists \delta >0, \forall \eta (0\leq \eta\leq \delta \implies x^* + \eta h\in X)<br />
Only this definition is given, so one naturally asks, do such feasible directions even exist, in general?
Further development is done via the language of sequences.
Call a direction h\neq 0 to be a sequential feasible direction at x^*\in X if there exist sequences h_k\to h such that for every vanishing sequence \eta _k >0 it holds that x^* + \eta_k h_k\in X.
Evidently, the sequence converges to x^*, but the following is problematic for me.
Set x_k := x^* + \eta_kh_k. If we set \eta _k := \|x_k-x^*\| then
<br /> \frac{x_k-x^*}{\|x_k-x^*\|} \xrightarrow[k\to\infty]{} h?!\tag{E}<br />
What I understand is that we have a sequence of normed elements, so if it converges to anything, the limit has to be nonzero, but why does it converge?
Let's give some context. Suppose x^*\in X is not a local maximum point (subject to said constraints), then by definition
<br /> \forall k\in\mathbb N,\exists x_k\in X : \|x^*-x_k\|\leq \frac{1}{k}\quad \&\quad f(x_*) < f(x_k)<br />
So, we can construct a sequence of feasible points that converges to x^*. May we assume without loss of generality, this sequence has a limiting direction? More formally, if we write x_k = x^* + \eta_ kh_k, k\in\mathbb N, may we assume \exists \lim _k h_k\in\mathbb R ^n\setminus\{0\}?
So, like I said, probably something trivial, but I really don't understand why we may assume the argument that culminates in (E).
