Expected value of x for quantum oscillator - integration help

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the expected value of x for a quantum oscillator, specifically using the wavefunction Cxe^{-ax^2}. Participants are exploring the integration required to compute this expected value.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to compute the expected value using integration, referencing a specific integral formula. They express uncertainty about the positivity of the parameter a and its implications for the integral's convergence.
  • Some participants question the validity of the integral setup, particularly regarding the properties of odd functions and convergence criteria.
  • Others suggest reconsidering the approach after realizing the implications of integrating odd functions over symmetric limits.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring different approaches to the integration problem. Some have provided insights into the convergence of the integral and the nature of the wavefunction, while others reflect on their initial assumptions and methods.

Contextual Notes

There is a focus on the conditions under which the integral converges, particularly the implications of the parameter a being positive. Participants are also considering the potential for misinterpretation of the integral's properties.

phosgene
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Homework Statement



I have a wavefunction [itex]Cxe^{-ax^2}[/itex] and I have to find the expected value of x.

Homework Equations



[itex]∫_{-∞}^{∞} x^3 e^{-Ax^2} dx = 1/A^2 for A>0[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I get an integral like this:

[itex]<x>=|C|^2 ∫_{-∞}^{∞} x^3 e^{-Ax^2} dx[/itex]

After trying integration by parts and failing (miserably), I took the coward's way out and went to an integration table. I found this:

[itex]∫_{-∞}^{∞} x^3 e^{-Ax^2} dx = 1/A^2 for A>0[/itex]

My question is this: my [itex]a=ωm/ \hbar[/itex] is always positive, right? I googled stuff on negative frequency, but I don't think that it applies in this situation (quantum oscillator).
 
Last edited:
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Actually, I think I got it using integration by parts, but I'd still like to know if my 'shortcut' is still valid.
 
If A<0, it's not that you need a different formula, it's that your integral doesn't converge at all.

Although for this specific integral I think you either wrote it down wrong or did the problem wrong because you're integrating an odd function and should just get 0 regardless of what a is (again, as long as it's positive so the integral converges)
 
I realized that now using Wolfram Alpha...that was my first thought, but then I thought that it would be too easy. I need to stop convincing myself that an easy solution is wrong solution...
 

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