Exponential Forms of Inverse Trig & Hyperbolic Functions

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The discussion focuses on deriving the exponential forms of inverse trigonometric and hyperbolic functions, specifically sin^{-1}z, cos^{-1}z, sinh^{-1}z, and cosh^{-1}z. The user demonstrates how to express sine in exponential form and suggests that this can be extended to find the inverses using logarithmic expressions. They provide a step-by-step approach to manipulate the sine function and derive the inverse, emphasizing the need to select a branch of the complex logarithm for proper function definition. The user expresses satisfaction with the ease of the process after receiving assistance. Overall, the thread highlights the relationship between trigonometric identities and their exponential representations.
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I'm try to prove some trig identities and I need to know how to write the following functions in their exponential forms:

sin^{-1}z
cos^{-1}z
sinh^{-1}z
cosh^{-1}z

I know how the sine and cosine functions are expressed with exponents, but I'm not sure how that would translate to the inverses of the functions.
 
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If the trig functions can be written in exponential form then the inverse functions would be expressible in logarithmic form!

E.g. Let

\sin z = \frac {e^{i z} - e^{-iz}}{2i}

then solve for e^{iz} in terms of \sin z. Once you have your expression for e^{iz} then just find the natural logarithm of both sides and you have your inverse function!
 
Just a reminder:
Since the complex logarithm is a multi-valued function (i.e, not a "usual" type of function), you must choose a branch of it to gain a "proper" inverse function.
 
Tide said:
If the trig functions can be written in exponential form then the inverse functions would be expressible in logarithmic form!

E.g. Let

\sin z = \frac {e^{i z} - e^{-iz}}{2i}

then solve for e^{iz} in terms of \sin z. Once you have your expression for e^{iz} then just find the natural logarithm of both sides and you have your inverse function!

Maybe I could get a little more help. If I start with
\sin z = \frac {e^{i z} - e^{-iz}}{2i}

then I take the 2i term to the left and then take the natural log of both sides I get the following:

ln2i*sinz=ln(e^{2iz}-1)-iz

ln(2i*sinz)+iz=ln(e^{2iz}-1)

-2zsinz+1=e^{2iz}

e^{iz}=(-2zsinz+1)^{\frac{1}{2}}

But now I don't see how to use that. What I am trying to do is show that \sin^{-1}z=-iln({iz+(1-z^2)^{\frac{1}{2}}})
 
Set y=sin(z).
Then:
2iye^{iz}=e^{2iz}-1
(e^{iz})^{2}-2iye^{iz}-1=0
Or:
e^{iz}=\frac{2iy\pm\sqrt{-4y^{2}+4}}{2}
Or:
z=sin^{-1}(y)=-iln(iy\pm\sqrt{1-y^{2}})
 
arildno said:
Set y=sin(z).
Then:
2iye^{iz}=e^{2iz}-1
(e^{iz})^{2}-2iye^{iz}-1=0
Or:
e^{iz}=\frac{2iy\pm\sqrt{-4y^{2}+4}}{2}
Or:
z=sin^{-1}(y)=-iln(iy\pm\sqrt{1-y^{2}})


That is unbelievably easy. Thanks for the help, guys.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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