Find La Placian of a function in cartesian and Spherical Coordinates

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lonewolf219
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Homework Statement


Prove the La Placian of V(x,y,z)=(zx[itex]^{2}[/itex])/(x[itex]^{2}[/itex]+y[itex]^{2}[/itex]+z[itex]^{2}[/itex]) in Cartesian coordinates is equal to that in Spherical coordinates

Homework Equations



[itex]\nabla[/itex][itex]^{2}[/itex]V=0

The Attempt at a Solution



I have attempted to calculate all the terms out, and there were A LOT. I was hoping the derivatives in Cartesian, which I did first, would cancel, but they didn't. I may have made a mistake, I used the product rule and came up with 6 terms in the numerator over (x[itex]^{2}[/itex]+y[itex]^{2}[/itex]+z[itex]^{2}[/itex])[itex]^{3}[/itex]. Any suggestions? Spherical was even more complicated... I had the following:
r(cosθ)[itex]^{2}[/itex](sin[itex]\phi[/itex])[itex]^{2}[/itex](cos[itex]\phi[/itex]) before I began taking partial derivatives. Any help would really be appreciated, thanks...
 
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Which convention for spherical coordinates are you using? Physicists typically use ##\theta## as the angle from the z-axis whereas mathematicians use ##\phi##. Your expression for ##V(r,\theta,\phi)## appears to be using the math convention. I just ask because you posted this in the physics section.

No suggestions, by the way. I think you just have to grind it out.
 


This problem is from a physics class, and the class doesn't have a book assigned...so I've been looking through my calc iv book to try and get some information. Thanks for pointing out there are different systems, I wasn't aware of that and my professor didn't mention it...