Find probability of spin state after certain time.

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the probability of a spin state after a measurement in quantum mechanics, specifically using the state |psi> = (1/sqrt(2))(e^(iwt/2)|z-up> + ie^(-iwt/2)|z-down>. The participants clarify that after the initial measurement collapses the wave function to |x;+\rangle, the probability of this state evolving over a time interval Δt = π/ω under the Hamiltonian H = -ω S_z must be calculated. The correct approach involves recognizing that the probability is determined by the evolved state rather than the initial state post-measurement.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly wave function collapse.
  • Familiarity with spin operators, specifically Sx and Sz.
  • Knowledge of time evolution in quantum systems, including Hamiltonians.
  • Ability to compute probabilities using inner products in quantum states.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of wave function collapse in quantum measurements.
  • Learn about the time evolution of quantum states using the Schrödinger equation.
  • Explore the role of Hamiltonians in determining the dynamics of quantum systems.
  • Investigate the calculation of probabilities in quantum mechanics using different bases.
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in quantum mechanics, particularly those studying quantum measurements and spin systems, will benefit from this discussion.

baouba
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Homework Statement


Question: http://imgur.com/YzexPKl (only part c)

Homework Equations


From part a) I got |psi> = (1/sqrt(2))(e^(iwt/2)|z-up> + ie^(-iwt/2)|z-down>
I expanded this wave function in the x-spin basis and got,
|psi> = (1/(2))[(e^(iwt/2)+ie^(-iwt/2))|x-up> + (e^(iwt/2)-ie^(-iwt/2))|x-down>

The Attempt at a Solution


I know the probability of |psi> being in some sate |q> is P = |<q|psi>|^2 but how does this change after the wavefunction has already collapsed once? Since we're making a measurement should it be P = |<x-up|Sx|psi>|^2? where Sx is the x-spin operator? I just don't get that if that's the case, since we know the first measurement is |x-up> we'd get Sx|psi> = Sx|x-up>, then |<x-up|Sx|psi>|^2 = |<x-up|Sx|x-up>|^2 =|sx|^2 where sx is the Sx operator's eigenvalue?
 
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baouba said:
Since we're making a measurement should it be P = |<x-up|Sx|psi>|^2?
No, that's not a probability.
In part c, your starting state is ##|x;+\rangle## because as you have realized the previous state collapsed upon measurement to this state. Then this state is let evolve for a time interval ##\Delta t = \pi/\omega## in a Hamiltonian ##H = -\omega S_z##. At the end of that interval, you are asked to calculate the probability for the state.##|x;+\rangle##.
 

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