Find the 100th Derivative of e^(-x^2)

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on finding the 100th derivative of the function f(x) = e^{-x^2} evaluated at x = 0. The series expansion for e^{-x^2} is utilized, specifically the term \(\frac{(-1)^{n}x^{2n}}{n!}\). The key conclusion is that the only non-zero contribution to the 100th derivative arises from the term where n = 50, leading to the result of \(\frac{100!}{50!}\). For precise calculations, the use of a Computer Algebra System (CAS) or Stirling's formula for approximation is recommended.

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Homework Statement



Find the exact value for the 100th Derivative of f(x) = e^{-x^{2}} evaluated at x = 0

Homework Equations


e^{x} = \sum^{\infty}_{0} \frac{x^{n}}{n!}

e^{-x^{2}} = \sum^{\infty}_{0} \frac{(-1)^{n}x^{2n}}{n!}

The Attempt at a Solution


The only thing I can think of to do is to get the 100th term of the series which is
\frac{x^{200}}{100!}
factor out an x^{n} to make it look like the general term of a MacLaurin Series
\frac{x^{100}}{100!}x^{100}

and I thought that since
C_{n} = \frac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!}

I would just solve for the derivative
C_{100} = \frac{x^{100}}{100!} = \frac{f^{(100)}(0)}{100!}

But..I can't do anything with that.

I even attempted to use n = 50, so the coefficient would not have an X in it, but that just gives me the derivative is 1...in fact if I do it like that it says the derivative is always 1.
I know that to be not the case because if you evaluate the 2nd derivative by hand you get -2, and the 4th is 12
 
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you are on the right track...
the only term which gives you something nonzero at the 100th derivative it n=50
so you need to evaluate the 100th derivative of x^100/50!, but this is simply 100!/50!, if you want to get the exact number you would need to plug that into some CAS. You could also just use Stirling's formula to get a very good approximation.
 
neo86 said:
you are on the right track...
the only term which gives you something nonzero at the 100th derivative it n=50
so you need to evaluate the 100th derivative of x^100/50!, but this is simply 100!/50!, if you want to get the exact number you would need to plug that into some CAS. You could also just use Stirling's formula to get a very good approximation.

Thanks very much. It's a little awkward to think that the 100th term in the series is not the 100th term in the original Taylor/MacLaurin series but I suppose that's what I didn't realize.
 

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