- #1
docnet
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- Homework Statement:
- psb
- Relevant Equations:
- psb
Solution attempt:
$$F(F(x,y))=(z,w)$$
is the map given by
$$x=z$$
$$y=w$$
No. The map is given if you express ##z=z(u,v)=z(u(x,y),v(x,y))=z(x,y)##. You have to substitute the ##u,v## with their definitions in terms of ##x,y##.Homework Statement:: psb
Relevant Equations:: psb
View attachment 278552
Solution attempt:
$$F(F(x,y))=(z,w)$$
is the map given by
$$x=z$$
$$y=w$$
I assume after the substitution he got this resultYou have to substitute the with their definitions in terms of .
Maybe, but I guess there is no way but calculation to be sure. It looks a bit like a local Lie group.I assume after the substitution he got this result
##F^2=E##
##F=F^{-1}##
I corrected it. Idempotent functions are ##F^2=F##. We have theoretically ##F^3=F## and any element with ##F^n=F## qualifies to be idempotent, but Wiki said idempotent functions are those with ##n=2##.Thanks. And for this special idempotent transformation, is it used in Physics ?
The transformation for (x,y)=(-1,0) ## u(-1,0)=-1, v(-1,0)=0##, otherwise as above mentioned would be defined for all xy, uv plane.Although my answer is probably wrong, because is not defined everywhere on the plane to start with. I wonder if the composite map would be different if I computed everything out?