Find the velocity of a particle from the Lagrangian

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on deriving the velocity of a relativistic particle from its Lagrangian, given by $$L=-mc^2 \sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}} - \frac{\alpha}{r}\exp^{-\beta r}$$. Participants utilize Lagrange's equations of motion, specifically $$\frac{d}{dt}(\frac{dL}{dv})= \frac{dL}{dr}$$, to relate the particle's momentum and potential energy. The challenge lies in simplifying the resulting differential equation for velocity, with suggestions to employ generalized coordinates for clarity.

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Lightf
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Homework Statement



Consider the following Lagrangian of a relativistic particle moving in a D-dim space and interacting with a central potential field.

$$L=-mc^2 \sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}} - \frac{\alpha}{r}\exp^{-\beta r}$$

...

Find the velocity v of the particle as a function of p and r.


Homework Equations



Lagrange's Equations of motion

$$\frac{d}{dt}(\frac{dL}{dv})= \frac{dL}{dr}$$


The Attempt at a Solution



$$\frac{dL}{dr} = \frac{\alpha \exp^{-\beta r}(r+1)}{r^2}$$
$$\frac{dL}{dv} \equiv p = \frac{mc^2 v}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}$$
$$\frac{d}{dt}(\frac{mc^2 v}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}) = \frac{\alpha \exp^{-\beta r}(r+1)}{r^2}$$

I am not sure what to do next. If I try to differentiate the left side I get

$$mc^2 \dot{v}(v^2(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})^{-\frac{3}{2}} + (1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})^{-\frac{1}{2}} ) = \frac{\alpha \exp^{-\beta r}(r+1)}{r^2}$$

Which seems very hard to integrate.. Any ideas to find v easier?
 
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Think about the first integrals! There is one very obvious from the fact that L is not explicitly dependent on time.

Further it is important to write out everything in one set of generalized coordinates and their time derivatives. Either you use Cartesian coordinates and
\vec{v}=\frac{\mathrm{d} \vec{x}}{\mathrm{d} t}, \quad r=\sqrt{\vec{x} \cdot \vec{x}},<br />
or you write everything in spherical coordinates r, \vartheta,\varphi!
 
Since the L is not explicitly dependent on time \frac{dL}{dt}=0. I cannot see the obvious :(

I will try to redo my work with generalised coordinates and see if I makes it clearer.
 
No! The Hamiltonian,
H=\vec{x} \cdot \vec{p}-L,
where
\vec{p}=\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{\vec{x}}}
is the canonical momentum of the particle.
 
Now I am confused. Should I use Hamiltion's equations then if I use the Hamiltonian? \dot{q}=\frac{dH}{dp}?
 
Lightf said:
Now I am confused. Should I use Hamiltion's equations then if I use the Hamiltonian? \dot{q}=\frac{dH}{dp}?

No, use the Lagrangian, just make sure you are using only one set of generalized coordinates. I would use Cartesian.
 

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