"Finding a Non-Coercive Function f(x,y) on R2

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding a function f(x,y) defined on R² that meets specific limit conditions while not being coercive. The original poster seeks a function such that as x approaches infinity along one line and y approaches infinity along another, the function tends to infinity, yet it does not satisfy coerciveness.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the function f(x,y) = x² - 2xy + y² and its properties regarding limits and coerciveness. Questions arise about whether this function meets the criteria of approaching infinity under the specified limits while also being non-coercive.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring the implications of coerciveness and the behavior of the proposed function under different conditions. Some guidance has been offered regarding the limits, and there is a recognition of the need for a function that behaves differently along various paths to infinity.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the definitions of coerciveness and the conditions under which the function approaches infinity. There is an acknowledgment that the function may not meet the problem's requirements, particularly when evaluated along certain lines.

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Homework Statement



Find a function f(x,y) on R2 such that for each real number t, we have
lim x->∞ f(x,tx) = lim y->∞ f(ty,y) = ∞, but such that f(x,y) is not coercive.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I know that f(x,y) = x^2 -2xy + y^2 = (x-y)^2 is not coercive
but I am not sure this function can be used in above question.
 
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What makes you think there is something wrong with your example? The limits of f(x,tx) and f(ty,y) are infinity, aren't they?
 
I want to know f(x,y) = x^2 -2xy + y^2 can be the answer for my question.
 
hsong9 said:
I want to know f(x,y) = x^2 -2xy + y^2 can be the answer for my question.

Why NOT?? If the limits of f(x,tx) and f(ty,y) are infinity then you have solved the problem. Can you show those limits are both infinity?
 
Thanks,
Actually, I know how both infinity are, but
My question is the function is "not coercive"
I don't know how it works lim f(x,y) != infinite. --> this means not coercive.. right?
 
I think so, if I understand what you are saying. If x and y go to infinity, and x=y then the limit is zero, right? Not infinity. So not coercive.
 
hmm, yes you understand exactly.
it does not matter lim x->∞ f(x,tx) = lim y->∞ f(ty,y) = ∞ ?
If I consider about it, x - tx is not equal to zero..
 
Wait a minute. I was wrong. You can't have shown f(x,tx) and f(ty,y)->infinity for all t. They don't. If t=1 then f(x,x)=f(y,y)=0. Your condition only says f(x,y) approaches infinity along straight lines approaching infinity. Your function IS zero along a line approaching infinity. You need to find a function that approaches infinity along lines approaching infinity but doesn't approach infinity along a curve that goes to infinity. Can you think of one?
 
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