Finding Bijection Proof: X to p(X)

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Homework Statement



Let X be a set. Suppose that f is a bijection from p(X) to p(X) such that [itex]f(A)\subseteq f(B)[/itex] iff [itex]A\subseteq B[/itex] for all subsets A,B of X.
Show that there is a bijection g from X to X such that for all [itex]A\subseteq X[/itex] one has f(A)=g(A).

Homework Equations



p(X) is the power set of X.

The Attempt at a Solution



This seems too elementary and I doubt that there is something to prove. Can't I just take f=g?
 
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bedi said:

Homework Statement



Let X be a set. Suppose that f is a bijection from p(X) to p(X) such that [itex]f(A)\subseteq f(B)[/itex] iff [itex]A\subseteq B[/itex] for all subsets A,B of X.
Show that there is a bijection g from X to X such that for all [itex]A\subseteq X[/itex] one has f(A)=g(A).

Homework Equations



p(X) is the power set of X.

The Attempt at a Solution



This seems too elementary and I doubt that there is something to prove. Can't I just take f=g?

But f is a function from P(X) to P(X). And g is a function from X to X. So taking f=g makes no sense. The arguments of f should be subsets of X. The arguments of g should be elements of X.
 
I can't believe I didn't see it:D thanks
 
Define g(x) as the unique element satisfying {g(x)}=f{x}.show that g(A)=U{g(a)}=Uf{a}=
f(A)
 

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