Finding Bijection Proof: X to p(X)

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a set X and a bijection f from the power set p(X) to itself, with a specific property relating the subsets A and B of X. The goal is to demonstrate the existence of another bijection g from X to X that satisfies a particular relationship with f for all subsets A of X.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants question the validity of equating f and g due to their differing domains, with f operating on subsets of X and g on elements of X. Others explore the definition of g in relation to f, suggesting a unique element mapping.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants examining the definitions and properties of the functions involved. There is a recognition of the need to clarify the relationship between f and g, and some guidance has been offered regarding the construction of g.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the implications of the definitions of bijections and the specific properties of the functions involved, highlighting the need to adhere to the constraints of their respective domains.

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Homework Statement



Let X be a set. Suppose that f is a bijection from p(X) to p(X) such that [itex]f(A)\subseteq f(B)[/itex] iff [itex]A\subseteq B[/itex] for all subsets A,B of X.
Show that there is a bijection g from X to X such that for all [itex]A\subseteq X[/itex] one has f(A)=g(A).

Homework Equations



p(X) is the power set of X.

The Attempt at a Solution



This seems too elementary and I doubt that there is something to prove. Can't I just take f=g?
 
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bedi said:

Homework Statement



Let X be a set. Suppose that f is a bijection from p(X) to p(X) such that [itex]f(A)\subseteq f(B)[/itex] iff [itex]A\subseteq B[/itex] for all subsets A,B of X.
Show that there is a bijection g from X to X such that for all [itex]A\subseteq X[/itex] one has f(A)=g(A).

Homework Equations



p(X) is the power set of X.

The Attempt at a Solution



This seems too elementary and I doubt that there is something to prove. Can't I just take f=g?

But f is a function from P(X) to P(X). And g is a function from X to X. So taking f=g makes no sense. The arguments of f should be subsets of X. The arguments of g should be elements of X.
 
I can't believe I didn't see it:D thanks
 
Define g(x) as the unique element satisfying {g(x)}=f{x}.show that g(A)=U{g(a)}=Uf{a}=
f(A)
 

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