Finding if a series is convergent.

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    Convergent Series
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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the convergence of a series defined as \(\sum \frac{(n!)^2}{(kn)!}\), where \(N\) is the variable and \(K\) is a constant. Participants are exploring the conditions under which this series converges.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of the ratio test and question the validity of their calculations. There is a suggestion to test specific values of \(k\) and to consider Stirling's approximation for factorials as \(n\) becomes large.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants providing guidance on testing specific values and suggesting alternative methods for analysis. There is an acknowledgment of the need for rigor in proving convergence for all \(k > 2\), indicating a productive exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating potential mistakes in their calculations and assumptions, particularly regarding the application of the ratio test and the behavior of factorials in the series. There is an emphasis on the need for thoroughness in the analysis.

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Finding if a series is convergent-Answered

Homework Statement


Find for which values of K is the fallowing series convergent.

\sum((n!)2)/((kn)!)

where:
N is the variable.
K is a constant or a list of constant (eg. "(2,91]")

Homework Equations



I believe the ratio test, which states that if (f(n+1)/(f(n) as n approaches infinity is less then 1, it converges.

The Attempt at a Solution



I believe the obvious way to go about this would be the ratio test which is as fallows"

[PLAIN]http://img688.imageshack.us/img688/2140/equation1.png
[PLAIN]http://img146.imageshack.us/img146/2783/equation2.png
[PLAIN]http://img232.imageshack.us/img232/1554/equation3.png

1>((n+1)!*(n+1)!/(k(n+1))!*((Kn)!/(n!*n!) as n\rightarrow \infty

1>(n+1)(n+1)/(k(n+1)) as n\rightarrow \infty

1> (n+1)/k

which is not true, therefore this series must diverge for any possible K.

my question: am i doing anything wrong or did the teacher give a trick question?
 
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actually sorry, I take that back, i think there is a mistake
\frac{ (kn)! }{ (k(n+1))! } = \frac{ (kn)! }{ (kn+k)! } \neq \frac{1}{k(n+1)}
 
Last edited:
as a guide, try k = 1,2,3 and see whether you get a converging series

another way do this covering all integer k>1 would be to use Stirlings's Approximation for n! as n gets large
 
Oh, Thanks for your help lanedance. i found it pretty intuitive that 2+ was the answer but i wouldn't have thought to be able to solve it mathematically i would need to distribute the K then simply insert a value. you've been very helpful.
 
to be rigorous, you need to show its true for all k>2, not just one larger than 2 (3)

so options are
- have a look at Stirlings Approximation n! \approx n^{n}e{-n}\sqrt{2\pi n }
- try mathematical induction

i haven't tried either fully but think both should work
 

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