- #1

shamieh

- 539

- 0

**explicit**solution to the IVP.

$xdx + ye^{-x}dy=0$, $y(0) =1$

so I did some manipulation to get

$ye^{-x}dy= -xdx$ ==> $\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{-x}{ye^{-x}}$

but now I'm confused on what to do. What I found above is the

**implicit**solution right? So do I just need to get $y'$ on the left side by multiplying through with a $dx$ and then just plug a $0$ in for $x$ and a $1$ in for $y$ to get the

**explicit**solution??