What's the limit x->infinity of (1+1/x)^x? I'm guessing you know that. Can you rearrange your limit into something in that form. Try a change of variable like 1/u=-5x.
You are trying to apply l'Hopital's theorem to the log, aren't you? I didn't recognize it. Ok. The log of y is (3/x)*ln(1-5x). Write that as 3*ln(1-5x)/x. That has a 0/0 form. So you can use l'Hopital. It has the form f(x)/g(x) where f(x) and g(x) go to zero. What does l'Hopital say?
According to l'Hopital, the candidate for the limit is f'(x)/g'(x), right? You took the derivative of the numerator. Why didn't you take the derivative of the denominator?
Yes. Now, if you want, tell me as an exercise why the limit I originally asked about, lim x->infinity (1+1/x)^x=e. It's the same thing really. Would be just for fun. If you get that you have it.
It's infinity*zero. Change it to ln(1+1/x)/(1/x). Now it's 0/0. Now you can apply l'Hopital. Find f'(x)/g'(x) and let x->infinity. It's easy. You're almost there.
Yes. You win! It's e. Remember the trick that if you see a limit like 0*infinity you can change it into infinity/infinity or 0/0 by moving a term into the numerator or denominator, whichever makes the derivatives easier. Well done.
Awesome! Thanks.
Don't happen to have any more practice problems handy do you? :)
I have a test tomorrow on l'Hopital, and integration by simple sub, trig sub, partial fractions, and parts. I've been doing the same problems so many times, I'm worried I've just remembered the problems and not the techniques.
Nah. Don't have a big pool of practice problems. I'm sure you have plenty. Good luck. You did pretty well tonight once you got your wits about you. Get some sleep.