Finding the Moment Generating Function for Uniform Distribution on (0,1)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the moment generating function (MGF) for a random variable X that is uniformly distributed over the interval (0,1). Participants are exploring the formulation and implications of the MGF, as well as its relation to moments around the origin.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the integral formulation of the MGF and question the representation of the probability density function (pdf). There are attempts to derive the MGF and its moments, with some participants expressing confusion over the algebraic manipulation involved.

Discussion Status

Several participants have provided hints and clarifications regarding the formulation of the MGF and the evaluation of moments. There is an ongoing exploration of the series expansion of the exponential function and its derivatives, with some participants questioning their interpretations and calculations.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of homework guidelines, which may limit the extent of direct assistance. There is a focus on understanding the mathematical relationships rather than obtaining final answers.

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Homework Statement



Let X be uniformly distributed over the unit interval (0,1). Determine the moment generating function of X, and using this, determine all moments around the origin.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I know that the MGT is M(x) = E[ext]

I'm just not sure how to start this problem. Could someone give me a hint, or point me in the right direction?
 
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That makes it the integral from 0 to 1 of exp(x*t)*1*dx, doesn't it?
 
What does the "1" exp(x*t)*1*dx supposed to represent?
 
If the distribution is uniform over [0,1], then the pdf is f(x)=1, isn't it? The moment generating function is integral f(x)*exp(x*t)*dx. The 1 is the f(x).
 
Can't believe I didn't realize that. Thanks again.
 
So I did the integral and I got [tex]\frac{1}{t}e^t - \frac{1}{t}[/tex]

so the nth derivative of e^t is [tex]\frac{e^t}{t!}[/tex] (from taylor series)

but not sure what to do about the 1/t.
 
The series expansion of e^t is 1+t+t^2/2!+t^3/3!+... Which is quite unlike what you said. The 1/t part cancels.
 
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so all moments around the origin is just e^t (evaluated at t = 0)?
 
cse63146 said:
so all moments around the origin is just e^t (evaluated at t = 0)?

No! Not at all! I was suggesting you expand the infinite series for e^t and use some algebra to write it in a way that's easier to handle for derivatives. You can work directly with e^t/t-1/t as well, but you can't just put t=0 after you take the derivative since that would be undefined - you would have to take the limit as t->0.
 
  • #10
I see what you mean. I get tn - 1/n!
 
  • #11
cse63146 said:
I see what you mean. I get tn - 1/n!

Good! You mean the sum of that for n=1 to infinity, right? I.e. 1+t/2!+t^2/3!+..., right? Now it's easy to find the nth derivative of that, also right?
 
  • #12
the nth derivative would be [(1-n)^n]*(tn - 1/n!)
 
  • #13
cse63146 said:
the nth derivative would be [(1-n)^n]*(tn - 1/n!)

Why on Earth would it be that? Look, take 1+t/2!+t^2/3!+t^3/4!+... What's the first derivative evaluated at t=0? Now do the second. Try the third. Do you see a pattern? Those are the moments. They are also pretty easy to compute from the pdf without even using a generating function. You should probably do the zero moment as well.
 
  • #14
probably wrong, but it look's like tn/(n+1)! but if I substitute t = 0, then I get 0.
 
  • #15
Yes, it's wrong. Can you help me out here? m(t)=1+t/2!+t^2/3!+t^3/4!+... That is your moment generating function isn't it? It's a infinite SUM of terms like you have suggested before. Not just a naked t^n/(n+1)!. It's a summation. What's the first derivative at t=0? Please, help me. Exactly ONE of the terms in that series has a nonzero first derivative at t=0. NONE of the others do.
 
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  • #16
So I was looking through my notes and found this:

[tex]M(0) + \sum M^{(n)}(0)\frac{t^{n-1}}{n!} =1 + \sum^{\infty}_{n=2} E[X^n] \frac{t^{n-1}}{n!}[/tex]

where E[Xn] = 1/(n+1) since it's uniformly distributed on (0,1)
 
  • #17
Yes. E[X^n]=1/(n+1). Because i) the integral from 0 to 1 of x^n is 1/(n+1). And ii) you can also read that off from the generating faction. If you take the nth derivative and set t=0 the only term that contributes is t^n/(n+1)!. All of the others vanish. And differentiating that term n times gives 1/(n+1).
 
  • #18
So it's supposed to be:

[tex]M(0) + \sum M^{(n)}(0)\frac{t^{n-1}}{n!} =1 + \sum^{\infty}_{n=2} \frac{1}{n+1} \frac{t^{n-1}}{n!}[/tex]

Kinda confused about t^n/(n+1)!.
 
  • #19
Forget the n. Just deal with say the first 3 or 4 moments. Try and prove that the first few moments of your distribution are the same as what you would get from the generating function. Or even the first 1 or 2. Any of them. I'm on the verge of giving up here. Just do numbers, forget the symbols.
 
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  • #20
*smacks head on keyboard*

can't believe it took me so long to get it. Thanks for being so patient, and sorry for all the trouble.
 

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