Finding the partial derivatives of function

Click For Summary
To find the partial derivatives of the function z = (1/x)[f(x-y) + g(x+y)], it is suggested to leave the functions f and g in their current form, as they may cancel out during calculations. The chain rule is essential for computing the derivatives, where the partial derivative of f with respect to y, f_y(x-y), is derived as -f'(x-y) due to the negative contribution from the derivative of (x-y). Similarly, for f_x(x+y), the chain rule applies, and the user is encouraged to apply this method consistently. Understanding the chain rule is crucial for correctly deriving the necessary partial derivatives. The discussion emphasizes the importance of applying these principles even when specific forms of f and g are not provided.
chmate
Messages
37
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



If z=\frac{1}{x}[f(x-y)+g(x+y)], prove that \frac{\partial }{\partial x}(x^2\frac{\partial z}{\partial x})=x^2\frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial y^2}

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I don't know how I'm supposed to find the partial derivative of z with respect to any of variables if the function f and g are not expressed.
Help me!

Thank you
 
Physics news on Phys.org
chmate said:

Homework Statement



If z=\frac{1}{x}[f(x-y)+g(x+y)], prove that \frac{\partial }{\partial x}(x^2\frac{\partial z}{\partial x})=x^2\frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial y^2}

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I don't know how I'm supposed to find the partial derivative of z with respect to any of variables if the function f and g are not expressed.
Help me!

Thank you

Just leave the f and g in there, maybe they will cancel out. For example, if you want the partial of f(x-y) with respect to y it would be:$$
f_y(x-y) = -1\cdot f'(x-y)$$and so on.
 
LCKurtz said:
Just leave the f and g in there, maybe they will cancel out. For example, if you want the partial of f(x-y) with respect to y it would be:$$
f_y(x-y) = -1\cdot f'(x-y)$$and so on.

Can you explain me why f_y(x-y) = -1\cdot f'(x-y)? I don't get it.
What is then f_x(x+y) = ?
 
chmate said:
Can you explain me why f_y(x-y) = -1\cdot f'(x-y)? I don't get it.
What is then f_x(x+y) = ?

It is the chain rule. If you have ##z=f(x-y)## let ##u = x-y## so ##z=f(u)##. Your chain rule for is$$
z_x = z_u u_x,\ z_y = f_u u_y$$and since f depends on only one variable u, you would write ##f_u = f'(u)## and you multiply by the ##u_x## or ##u_y## accordingly.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K