Finding the Residue of this function

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Homework Statement



The original problem is to find the integral from 0 to 2[itex]\pi[/itex] of [itex]\frac{1}{2\pi}e^{cosθ}cos(2θ)[/itex]

Homework Equations



I have it down to two equations which I believe I have to find the residues of and add the results, multiply by 2[itex]\pi[/itex]i and I will have my answer.

The Attempt at a Solution



Have 1/2(∫e[itex]^{1/2(z+1/z)}[/itex]*z + ∫e[itex]^{1/2(z+1/z)}[/itex]*(1/z[itex]^{3}[/itex])

so I believe I have to find Res(e[itex]^{1/2(z+1/z)}[/itex]*z) and Res(e[itex]^{1/2(z+1/z)}[/itex]*(1/z[itex]^{3}[/itex])

If this is correct I really am unsure of how to find these residues..
 
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You can find the residue of [itex]z e^{\frac{z^2+1}{2z}}[/itex] by using the Cauchy product:

[tex]ze^{\frac{z^2+1}{2z}}=z\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^n}{2^n n!} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^n n! z^n}=z\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{z^k}{2^k k!} \frac{1}{2^{n-k} (n-k)! z^{n-k}}[/tex]

Now that double sum, get all the z's together on one side. Then that's [itex]z^{1+k-(n-k)}[/itex] right? When does that exponent equal -1? When ever 2k+2=n right? Now we only want the coefficients of 1/z for that to sum them up (the resisue is an infinite sum). So we need to sum all the k-values when n=2k+2. So form the inner sum using only the coefficients when n=2k+2 and compute:

[tex]\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} ?[/tex]
 
If I do all of that I get [itex]\sum^{∞}_{k=0}\frac{1}{(k+2)!(2k+2)2^{3k+4}}[/itex] as the coefficient of [itex]\frac{1}{z}[/itex]

so this would be the residue right? Then I just have to do the same thing for the other residue and add them and multiply by 2[itex]\pi[/itex]i according to the residue theorem...
 
Try to check them in Mathematica. It's not hard:

Code:
In[2]:=
NIntegrate[z*Exp[(z^2 + 1)/(2*z)]*I*Exp[I*t] /. 
   z -> Exp[I*t], {t, 0, 2*Pi}]

Out[2]=
5.551115123125783*^-16 + 0.8529277641641219*I

In[3]:=
Sum[1/(2^k*k!*(k + 2)!*2^(k + 2)), {k, 0, Infinity}]

Out[3]=
BesselI[2, 1]

In[4]:=
N[2*Pi*I*BesselI[2, 1]]

Out[4]=
0. + 0.8529277641641214*I
 
i'm sorry I'm kind of lost with the mathematica stuff (don't have the program).. but why did you integrate z*e^((z^2+1)/2z)*i*e^(it) ? I don't understand where the i*e^(it) came from at the end..
 
I understand everything you said about using the Cauchy product.. and went through all of that and then created a single sum from 0 to infinity substituting n=2k+2 to create the coefficient of the 1/z term in the sum, which I thought was the residue... where am I going wrong here?

Thanks for the help
 
The residue of [itex]\displaystyle z e^{\frac{z^2+1}{2z}}[/itex] is [itex]\displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^k k! (k+2)! 2^{k+2}}[/itex]

That's what you should get when you make the substitution n=2k+2. So we can check that by numerically integrating:

[tex]\mathop\oint\limits_{|z|=1} z e^{\frac{z^2+1}{2z}}dz[/tex]

Now let [itex]z=e^{it}[/itex] so that [itex]dz=ie^{it}[/itex]

and substitute that into the integral above to get:

[tex]\int_0^{2\pi} z e^{\frac{z^2+1}{2z}}ie^{it}dt,\quad z=e^{it}[/tex]

That's what I coded in Mathematica.
 
ahh ok I see now.. so I did the same for the other residue (with 1/z^3 instead of z) and found that the sum is 1/z when n=2k-2 so substituted and got [itex]\sum^{∞}_{k=0}\frac{1}{k!(k-2)!2^{k-1}}[/itex]

then added the two residues and multiplied by 1/2 to get [itex]\sum^{∞}_{k=0}\frac{1}{k!(k-2)!2^{k}}[/itex]

(multiplied by [itex]\frac{1}{2}[/itex] because the original integral had [itex]\frac{1}{4*\pi*i}[/itex] in front before finding residues so [itex]\frac{1}{4*\pi*i}[/itex] * 2[itex]\pi[/itex]*i = [itex]\frac{1}{2}[/itex]

I think this is correct.. Thanks again for your help