MHB First Comparison Test for Series .... Sohrab Theorem 2.3.9 ....

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The discussion centers on proving Theorem 2.3.9 (a) from Sohrab's "Basic Real Analysis," which involves using the Cauchy Criterion for series. The proof establishes that if the series of nonnegative terms \( \sum y_n \) converges, then the sequence of partial sums \( s_n = \sum x_n \) is bounded, leading to the conclusion that \( \sum x_n \) also converges. The participants clarify that since \( s_n \) is bounded by the convergent series \( \sum y_n \), it follows that \( \sum x_n \) converges as well. This exchange highlights the importance of establishing bounds in proving convergence of series. Overall, the proof effectively demonstrates the relationship between the convergence of \( \sum y_n \) and \( \sum x_n \).
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I am reading Houshang H. Sohrab's book: "Basic Real Analysis" (Second Edition).

I am focused on Chapter 2: Sequences and Series of Real Numbers ... ...

I need help with the proof of Theorem 2.3.9 (a) ...

Theorem 2.3.9 reads as follows:
View attachment 9065
Now, we can prove Theorem 2.3.9 (a) using the Cauchy Criterion for Series ... as follows:Since $$0 \leq x_n \leq y_n \ \forall \ n \in \mathbb{N}$$ ... we have that ...$$\left\vert \sum_{ k = n + 1 }^m x_n \right\vert \leq \left\vert \sum_{ k = n + 1 }^m y_n \right\vert$$ ... ... ... ... ... (1)But ... since $$ \sum_{ n = 1 }^{ \infty } y_n $$ is convergent, it satisfies the Cauchy Criterion for Series ...... further ... (1) implies that $$ \sum_{ n = 1 }^{ \infty } x_n $$ also satisfies the Cauchy Criterion for Series ... ... and so $$ \sum_{ n = 1 }^{ \infty } x_n $$ is convergent ...

However ... Sohrab states that Theorem 2.3.9 (a) is an immediate consequence of Theorem 2.3.6 (see below) ... ... this means we need to establish bounds for $$ \sum_{ n = 1 }^{ \infty } x_n $$ ...... can someone please demonstrate how to do this ...
Note: If $$\lim_{n \to \infty } t_n = \lim_{n \to \infty } \sum_{ k = 1 }^n y_k = L$$ ...... does $$L$$ form an upper bound on $$ \sum_{ n = 1 }^{ \infty } y_n $$ ...... and hence also form an upper bound on $$\sum_{ n = 1 }^{ \infty } x_n$$ ...... but ... how do we prove this ... ?

Help will be appreciated ...

Peter
=======================================================================================The post above refers to Theorem 2.3.6 ... so I am providing text of the same ... as follows:View attachment 9066
Hope that helps ...

Peter
 

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Hi Peter,

First, let's talk about Theorem 2.3.6. Recall that an increasing sequence of real numbers converges if and only if it is bounded. Given a series $\sum x_n$ of nonnegative terms, its sequence of partial sums $s_N = \sum_1^N x_n$ is increasing. Since $s_N$ converges if and only if it is bounded and the sum of a series is defined as the limit the sequence of partial sums, it follows that $\sum x_n$ converges if and only if it is bounded.

Now, let's revisit the proof of Theorem 2.3.9. If $\sum y_n$ converges, then $t_n$ is bounded, say, by $T$. As $0 \le s_n \le t_n$ for all $n$, then $0 \le s_n \le T$ for all $n$. Thus $s_n$ is bounded, which implies $s_n$ converges. In other words, $\sum x_n$ converges. This proves $(a)$. Statement $(b)$ is equivalent to statement $(a)$.
 
Euge said:
Hi Peter,

First, let's talk about Theorem 2.3.6. Recall that an increasing sequence of real numbers converges if and only if it is bounded. Given a series $\sum x_n$ of nonnegative terms, its sequence of partial sums $s_N = \sum_1^N x_n$ is increasing. Since $s_N$ converges if and only if it is bounded and the sum of a series is defined as the limit the sequence of partial sums, it follows that $\sum x_n$ converges if and only if it is bounded.

Now, let's revisit the proof of Theorem 2.3.9. If $\sum y_n$ converges, then $t_n$ is bounded, say, by $T$. As $0 \le s_n \le t_n$ for all $n$, then $0 \le s_n \le T$ for all $n$. Thus $s_n$ is bounded, which implies $s_n$ converges. In other words, $\sum x_n$ converges. This proves $(a)$. Statement $(b)$ is equivalent to statement $(a)$.
Thanks for the explanation, Euge ...

Most helpful!

Peter
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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