For all x∈]0;2pi[ : tan(x) > x

  • Thread starter Thread starter Alexx1
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the inequality tan(x) > x for the interval x ∈ ]0; 2pi[. Participants are examining the validity of this statement and its implications within the specified range.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants question the validity of the original inequality, noting that the tangent function is undefined at specific points within the interval. Others explore the behavior of the function in subintervals, particularly between 0 and π/2, and discuss the implications of the function's derivative.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and corrections regarding the original statement. There is acknowledgment of errors in the initial claim, and a more precise interval is suggested for consideration.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the importance of the interval notation and the behavior of the tangent function at critical points, particularly where it is undefined.

Alexx1
Messages
86
Reaction score
0
Can someone prove this?

For all x∈]0;2pi[ : tan(x) > x
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No, because it isn't true on the interval you gave. The tangent function is undefined at x = pi/2 and x = 3pi/2. For all x in (pi/2, pi), tan(x) < x, and the same is true for the interval (3pi/2, 2pi).
 
Mark44 said:
No, because it isn't true on the interval you gave. The tangent function is undefined at x = pi/2 and x = 3pi/2. For all x in (pi/2, pi), tan(x) < x, and the same is true for the interval (3pi/2, 2pi).

No, 0 and 2pi don't belong to the interval (see the ] [ ), so it is true.
We've seen a similar example with sin x: for all x > 0: sin x < x
But with tan x I can't prove it.
 
But [itex]\pi/2[/itex] and [itex]3\pi/2[/itex] do belong to that interval! That's what Mark44 was saying. And, in fact, for [itex]\pi/2< x< \pi[/itex], tan(x) is negative and can't possibly be larger than x!

You need to reduce to [itex]]0, \pi/2[[/itex] in order to have tan(x)< x.
Look at the function f(x)= tan(x)- x. It's derivative is sec2(x)- 1 and since sec(x)> 1 for all x in [itex]]0, \pi/2[[/itex], that derivative is positive.
 
HallsofIvy said:
But [itex]\pi/2[/itex] and [itex]3\pi/2[/itex] do belong to that interval! That's what Mark44 was saying. And, in fact, for [itex]\pi/2< x< \pi[/itex], tan(x) is negative and can't possibly be larger than x!

You need to reduce to [itex]]0, \pi/2[[/itex] in order to have tan(x)< x.
Look at the function f(x)= tan(x)- x. It's derivative is sec2(x)- 1 and since sec(x)> 1 for all x in [itex]]0, \pi/2[[/itex], that derivative is positive.

Oh sorry I made a mistake.. it had to be: For all x∈]0;pi/2[ : tan(x) > x

I'm sorry, you were both right
Thanks for the answer!
 
Mark44 said:
No, because it isn't true on the interval you gave. The tangent function is undefined at x = pi/2 and x = 3pi/2. For all x in (pi/2, pi), tan(x) < x, and the same is true for the interval (3pi/2, 2pi).

I'm very sorry, I made a mistake. You were right

It had to be: For all x∈]0;pi/2[ : tan(x) > x

Sorry!
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
6K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
Replies
17
Views
3K