Alexx1
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Can someone prove this?
For all x∈]0;2pi[ : tan(x) > x
For all x∈]0;2pi[ : tan(x) > x
The discussion revolves around the inequality tan(x) > x for the interval x ∈ ]0; 2pi[. Participants are examining the validity of this statement and its implications within the specified range.
The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and corrections regarding the original statement. There is acknowledgment of errors in the initial claim, and a more precise interval is suggested for consideration.
Participants highlight the importance of the interval notation and the behavior of the tangent function at critical points, particularly where it is undefined.
Mark44 said:No, because it isn't true on the interval you gave. The tangent function is undefined at x = pi/2 and x = 3pi/2. For all x in (pi/2, pi), tan(x) < x, and the same is true for the interval (3pi/2, 2pi).
HallsofIvy said:But [itex]\pi/2[/itex] and [itex]3\pi/2[/itex] do belong to that interval! That's what Mark44 was saying. And, in fact, for [itex]\pi/2< x< \pi[/itex], tan(x) is negative and can't possibly be larger than x!
You need to reduce to [itex]]0, \pi/2[[/itex] in order to have tan(x)< x.
Look at the function f(x)= tan(x)- x. It's derivative is sec2(x)- 1 and since sec(x)> 1 for all x in [itex]]0, \pi/2[[/itex], that derivative is positive.
Mark44 said:No, because it isn't true on the interval you gave. The tangent function is undefined at x = pi/2 and x = 3pi/2. For all x in (pi/2, pi), tan(x) < x, and the same is true for the interval (3pi/2, 2pi).