Suyash Singh
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mv=integral(fdt)kuruman said:This is not a Faraday's law question. You need to calculate the impulse F dt given to the conductor and set it equal to its momentum change.
and the force i was giving before is it the force on each charged particle?kuruman said:This is not a Faraday's law question. You need to calculate the impulse F dt given to the conductor and set it equal to its momentum change.
Because a segment of wire of length ##\vec L## carrying current ##I## in a magnetic field ##\vec B## experiences a force ##\vec F=I\vec L \times \vec B##.Suyash Singh said:but why is force in my book given as b l i (i is current)
ohhhh ok. i already knew that formula it was written differently so i couldn't recognise it.kuruman said:Because a segment of wire of length ##\vec L## carrying current ##I## in a magnetic field ##\vec B## experiences a force ##\vec F=I\vec L \times \vec B##.
You don't need an integral for the impulse. Assume that the force is constant while it lasts in which case the impulse is J = F Δt.