Premise: Ball A is accelerated on a level, frictionless plane until it reaches a velocity of 5 m/s. Ball A travels at 0 acceleration until it collides with Ball B. Statements: 1. According to F = ma , Ball A cannot produce a force at 0 acceleration. 2. Upon collision, Ball A applies a force on Ball B. From what I've learned, both of the statements are true. However, they clearly contradict each other. What's the cause of my confusion?