Solution: Prove Sum of Fourier Coefficients of a C2π Function is Finite

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that the sum of Fourier coefficients, denoted as c_n(f), for a function f in the space C^{2\pi} \cap C^1[-\pi,\pi] is finite. The key steps involve applying the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality and utilizing properties of the inner product in l_2 space. The final conclusion is that the sum \sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}|c_n(f)| converges due to the boundedness of f' and the convergence of \sum \frac{1}{n^2}.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier coefficients and their definitions
  • Familiarity with the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality
  • Knowledge of inner product spaces, particularly l_2 space
  • Basic concepts of convergence in series and functions in C^{2\pi}
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of Parseval's theorem in Fourier analysis
  • Explore the properties of C^{2\pi} functions and their Fourier series
  • Learn about convergence criteria for series involving Fourier coefficients
  • Investigate the implications of the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality in functional analysis
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Mathematicians, students of Fourier analysis, and anyone interested in the convergence properties of Fourier series and coefficients.

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[SOLVED] Fourier coefficients

Homework Statement


For f \in C^{2\pi}\cap C^1[-\pi,\pi], I have to show that

\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}|c_n(f)| < \infty

where c_n(f) is the Fourier coefficient of f;

c_n(f) = (f, e_n) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(t)e^{-int}\,dt

f \in C^{2\pi} means f continuous and that f(-\pi) = f(\pi).
Hint: Use Cauchy-Schwartz (CS) inequality.

(e_n = e^{int})

The Attempt at a Solution



I just can't seem to use CS in a useful way, I keep running into dead ends:

It is easily shown that c_n(f') = inc_n(f). So by using this and splitting the sum up in 2 parts and using that e_{-n} = \bar{e}_{n}, I get

\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}|c_n(f)| = c_0(f) + \sum_{1}^{\infty}\frac{|(f',e_n)| - |(f',\bar{e}_n)|}{n}

Using triangle inequality I can get

|(f',e_n)| - |(f',\bar{e}_n)| \leq |(f', e_n-\bar{e}_n)| =2|(f', \sin(nt))|.

Even here CS won't be useful. Is there a different an easier approach?
 
Last edited:
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What theorems do you know? Try looking at Parseval and its proof.
 
I kept looking at the wrong inner product to use CS on, that is that inner product of L_2, but I should look at the inner product of \ell_2 space. So by using that (replacing the minus sign with + in the afore mentioned equation for c_n(f))

\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}|c_n(f)| \leq c_0(f) + \sum_{1}^{\infty}\frac{|(f',e_n)| + |(f',\bar{e}_n)|}{n}

and then using that for |(f',\bar{e}_n)|/n (and the same for |(f',e_n)|/n) we get the summation by CS on l_2 innerproduct to be

\sum_{1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}|(f',e_{-n})| \leq \left(\sum_{1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}\right)^{1/2}\left(\sum_{1}^{\infty} |(f',e_{-n})|^2 \right)^{1/2}

Were the C^2 = \sum \frac{1}{n^2} is convergent. Before I can use Parseval's theorem, I need to extend the last sum to go from -infinity to +infinity so (1 more inequality), so I get (f', e_n) instead of (f',e_{-n}),

\sum_{1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}|(f',e_{-n})| \leq C\left(\sum_{-\infty}^{\infty} |(f',e_{n})|^2 \right)^{1/2} = C\|f'\| < \infty

Is this correct, or have I done some 'illegal' steps? If I haven't then the problem is solved.
 
Last edited:

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