Fourier Cosine Series for f(t)=1-t; 0≤t≤π | Homework Solution and Equations

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on deriving the Fourier cosine series for the function f(t) = 1 - t over the interval [0, π]. The coefficients a₀ and aₙ are calculated using the formulas a₀ = (1/2)∫₀²(1 - t) dt and aₙ = ∫₀²(1 - t) cos(nπt/2) dt, resulting in a₀ = 0 and aₙ = (4/(nπ)²)(1 - (-1)ⁿ). The final series representation includes the term (2/π) + Σ (4/(nπ)²)(1 - (-1)ⁿ) cos(nπt/2). Clarifications were sought regarding the origin of the (2/π) term and the upper limit of integration.

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icystrike
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Homework Statement


f(t)=1-t ; 0≤t≤\pi

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



<br /> a_{0}=\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{2}\left( 1-t\right) dt=0<br />
<br /> a_{n}=\int_{0}^{2}\left(1-t\right ) cos(\frac{n\pi\left t \right}{2}) dt = \frac{4}{(n\pi)^2}(1-(-1)^n)<br />
Ans that is given to me is:
\frac{2}{\pi} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{4}{(n\pi)^2}(1-(-1)^n) cos(\frac{n\pi\left t \right}{2})

I'm wondering where the \frac{2}{\pi} from...
 
Last edited:
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bump~
 
~Bump ( Sorry guys):shy:
 
icystrike said:

Homework Statement


f(t)=1-t ; 0≤t≤\pi

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



<br /> a_{0}=\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{2}\left( 1-t\right) dt=0<br />
<br /> a_{n}=\int_{0}^{2}\left(1-t\right ) cos(\frac{n\pi\left t \right}{2}) dt = \frac{4}{(n\pi)^2}(1-(-1)^n)<br />
Ans that is given to me is:
\frac{2}{\pi} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{4}{(n\pi)^2}(1-(-1)^n) cos(\frac{n\pi\left t \right}{2})

I'm wondering where the \frac{2}{\pi} from...

I'm wondering where your upper limit of 2 in your integrals came from. I'm wondering if you calculated a0 correctly. Did you use the half range formulas for the coefficients?
 
Last edited:
A "bump" after 39 minutes and then a second after another 1 hour 10 minutes? How close to banning does that get you?
 
Hi LCKurtz!

I have applied the formula for coeff:

a_{0}=\frac{1}{L}\int_{0}^{L}f\left( x\right) dx

a_{n}=\frac{2}{L}\int_{0}^{L}f\left( x\right) \cos \left( \frac{n\pi x}{L}\right) dx

Given x\in \left[ 0,L\right]Fourier Sine series:

b_{n}=\int_{0}^{2}\left( 1-t\right) \sin \left( \frac{n\pi t}{2}\right) dt

=\frac{2}{n\pi }\left( 1+\left( -1\right) ^{n}\right)Fourier Sine Series:

\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\frac{2}{n\pi }\left( 1+\left( -1\right) ^{n}\right)<br /> \sin \left( \frac{n\pi t}{2}\right) $
 
Last edited:
But isn't L = pi given?
 
Oh gee.. My bad.. Let me check again
 

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