- #1

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*Use a Fourier series to prove that: [tex] \int_{0}^{ \infty} \frac{\sin(x)}{x}\ \mbox{d}x = \frac{ \pi}{2} [/tex]*

What function do I need to fourier transform?

- Thread starter dirk_mec1
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- #1

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What function do I need to fourier transform?

- #2

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- #3

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Actually there are and I found that there are two ways of finding this answer both NOT with solely a sin(x) or sin(x)/x. I'm suprised that you didn't took the effort to look more closely to the question at hand.

- #4

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You're right. In particular I read Fouriertransform instead of Fourier Series. You're also right in saying that transforming sin(x) or sin(x)/x seems not to provide an easy solution to the problem.Actually there are and I found that there are two ways of finding this answer both NOT with solely a sin(x) or sin(x)/x. I'm suprised that you didn't took the effort to look more closely to the question at hand.

Which two ways are you referring to? One is likely to Laplace-transform 1/x ..?

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