Fourier Series of x^2-1 on Interval [-pi,pi]: Coefficient of cos3x Calculation

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the Fourier series of the function f(x) = x^2 - 1 on the interval [-π, π], specifically focusing on the coefficient of cos(3x) in the series.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the nature of the function (even or odd) and its implications for the Fourier series. There are inquiries about the integration limits for calculating coefficients and the use of integration by parts. Some participants express confusion about specific steps in the integration process.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, sharing insights about the integration methods and the properties of the function. Some guidance has been offered regarding the integration approach and the implications of the function's evenness. There is an acknowledgment of confusion regarding specific calculations, particularly concerning the coefficient of cos(3x).

Contextual Notes

There are discussions about the appropriateness of integration limits and the nature of the integrand, as well as the potential for errors in calculating the coefficients. Participants are navigating through the complexities of integration by parts and its application to the problem.

aeroguy2008
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Determine the fourierseries of the function

f(x)=x^2−1

defined on the interval [-pi,pi]. What will the coefficient a/b be in front of the cos3x in the fourierseries?


I am not sure how to start this solving this problem. Pls help.
 
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Well you use your formula for a_n and b_n. Did you try that?
 
I read that determining if the function is odd or even might be a good start.
 
True. So is this function even or odd or neither?
 
Its even if f(-x)=f(x) and odd if f(-x)=-x so in my case:

f(-x)=(-x)^2−1=x^2-1
so it must be even.
 
Hence I must use the cosine series on the interval -pi<x<pi. as

f(x) ~ a_0/2+ sum (n=1 to inf) a_n*cos((n*pi)/Pi)*x where:
a_0=2/pi*int(0 to pi) f(x)dx and
a_n=2/pi*int(0 to pi) f(x)cos(n*pi)/pi*x dx

But do I just start integrating from 0 to Pi to get a_0? Why not -Pi to Pi as indicated by the range of the problem? Is it because the integral will go to zero then?
 
Last edited:
It's an even integrand. The integral from -K to K is twice that of the integral from 0 to K.

There are 2 things here.

1) Can you use the formulae you've been given?
2) Do you understand the formulae you've been given?

If you focus on 2), then 1) becomes easier.
 
You could integrate from 0 to Pi, or from -Pi to Pi and take out the factor of 2. Since f(x) is even, it'll be the same either way.
 
matt grime said:
It's an even integrand. The integral from -K to K is twice that of the integral from 0 to K.

There are 2 things here.

1) Can you use the formulae you've been given?
2) Do you understand the formulae you've been given?

If you focus on 2), then 1) becomes easier.

Thanks. I did find this out. Since I integrated and what you guys are saying is surely correct.
But once I try to get a_n I end up with nasty partial integrations. I have to write back once I got my final results.
 
  • #10
I have no idea what you mean by "partial integration". Basically you are integrating [itex](x^2- 1)cos(nx)[/itex]. That should be easy using integration by parts. Was that what you meant?
 
  • #11
HallsofIvy said:
I have no idea what you mean by "partial integration". Basically you are integrating [itex](x^2- 1)cos(nx)[/itex]. That should be easy using integration by parts. Was that what you meant?

partial integration = IBP = integration by parts
 
  • #12
So the whole problem is to integrate
[tex]\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} (x^2-1)cos(3x)dx[/tex]

That should be easy using integration by parts (twice).
 
  • #13
Yes dirk_mec1 and HallsofIvy, I was wrong...I was thinking of integration by parts. I have used IBP to get the solution of the integrand you specified and my solution matched with the one I got from a computer software, as attached. I can see that the cos(3x) term appears in my solution but the coefficient of (2/9)Pi in front of the cos(3x) term is incorrect. This gives me reason to question what I am doing wrong. I do understand the procedure of this problem, but I am a little confused. Can you pls point me in the right direction?
 

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  • #14
nicksauce said:
You could integrate from 0 to Pi, or from -Pi to Pi and take out the factor of 2. Since f(x) is even, it'll be the same either way.

Thanks that was helpful.
 
  • #15
aeroguy2008 said:
Yes dirk_mec1 and HallsofIvy, I was wrong...I was thinking of integration by parts. I have used IBP to get the solution of the integrand you specified and my solution matched with the one I got from a computer software, as attached. I can see that the cos(3x) term appears in my solution but the coefficient of (2/9)Pi in front of the cos(3x) term is incorrect. This gives me reason to question what I am doing wrong. I do understand the procedure of this problem, but I am a little confused. Can you pls point me in the right direction?

Well for now I'll assume your integration is correct, without checking it myself. The sin terms disappear because sin(0) = sin(n*pi) = 0. The x=0 boundary dissapears for the first term, because x=0, so for the whole integration, you have 2/9 * pi * cos(3pi) = -2pi/9. To get the a_3 term, you must multiply by 2/pi, giving you -4/9, not (2/9)Pi as you said.
 
  • #16
Nick...thanks so much. What you said made perfect sense. I was disregarding the terms for n=3 and that's what I did wrong. So, now my answer is correct; a=-4 and b=9. Thus, This problem is solved:)
 

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