Fourier series technique to show that the following series sum to the quantities

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on using the Fourier series technique to prove that the series sum(1/(2n-1)^2, n, 1, infinity) converges to π²/8 as n approaches infinity. The user expresses uncertainty about applying the Fourier method to demonstrate this identity, despite successfully proving other related series such as sum(1/n^4, n, 1, infinity) = π^4/90 and sum(1/n^2, n, 1, infinity) = π²/6. The Fourier coefficients a_0 and a_n are calculated for the function f(x) = |x|, indicating a structured approach to the problem.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier series and their applications
  • Knowledge of convergence of infinite series
  • Familiarity with trigonometric integrals and identities
  • Basic calculus, particularly integration techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of Fourier series for piecewise functions
  • Learn about convergence tests for series, specifically for p-series
  • Explore the relationship between Fourier series and special functions
  • Investigate the properties of the function f(x) = |x| in Fourier analysis
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Mathematicians, physics students, and anyone interested in advanced calculus and Fourier analysis techniques for series convergence proofs.

maddogtheman
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Use the Fourier series technique to show that the following series sum to the quantities shown:
1+1/3^2+1/5^2+...+1/n^2=pi^2/8 for n going to infinity

I foudn the series to be:

sum(1/(2n-1)^2,n,1,infinity)

but I don't know how to prove the idenity.

I don't know how to go about solving it using the Fourier method. Any help would be greatly appreciated, thanks!

I was able to prove sum(1/n^4,n,1,infinity)=pi^4/90 and sum(1/n^2,n,1,infinity)=pi^2/6 and I'm not sure if the problem is simular.
 
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Set ##f(x)=|x|##. Then ##a_0=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} |x|\,dx =\pi^2## and ##a_n=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}|x|\cos(nx)\,dx =\frac{\cos(\pi n)-1}{n^2}## and consider ##x=0##.
 

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