Fourier Transform and Infinity Problem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the Fourier Transform of the function g(t) = (1/x)e^(-πt²/x²). Participants are exploring the integration process involved in calculating the Fourier Transform and addressing potential errors in the integration steps.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the integration of the exponential function and the validity of the antiderivative used. There are questions about the correctness of applying integration techniques and the assumptions made regarding the limits of integration.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants questioning the validity of the integration method used and others providing counterexamples to clarify misconceptions. There is no explicit consensus yet, as multiple interpretations of the integration process are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are addressing the challenges of integrating functions involving exponential terms and the implications of limits approaching infinity. There is mention of the error function as a potential consideration for the integration process.

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Homework Statement


Hi, I need to find the Fourier Transform of: [tex]g(t)=\frac{1}{x}e^{\frac{-\pi t^2}{x^2}}[/tex]

Homework Equations



[tex]G(f)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty }g(t)e^{-j2\pi ft}dt<br /> \therefore <br /> G(f)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty }\frac{1}{x}e^{\frac{-\pi t^2}{x^2}-j2\pi ft}dt[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


[tex]G(f)=\frac{1}{x}[\frac{x^2e^{-t(\frac{\pi t}{x^2}+j2\pi f)}}{-2\pi t-j2\pi fx^2}] (limits:t=\infty,t=-\infty)[/tex]

If you sub in t=infinity or t=-infinity, both will give you 0 because t is on the denominator.

Thanks for the help in advance! :)
 
Last edited:
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Check your antiderivative; you are essentially claiming that

[tex]\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\rm{e}^{h(t)}}{h'(t)}\right)=\rm{e}^{h(t)}[/tex]

which isn't true.
 
Hi, I had a - insead of a + in the last exponential.

Basically to integrate the exponential, I took the derivative of the power and divided the exponential by that derivative. Isn't this the right method?

So the derivative of [tex]\frac{-\pi t^2}{x^2}-j2\pi ft=\frac{-2\pi t}{x^2}-j2\pi f=\frac{-2\pi t-j2\pi fx^2}{x^2}[/tex]
[tex]G(f)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty }\frac{1}{x}e^{\frac{-\pi t^2}{x^2}-j2\pi ft}dt=\frac{1}{x}[\frac{e^{\frac{-\pi t^2}{x^2}-j2\pi ft}}{\frac{-2\pi t-j2\pi fx^2}{x^2}}=\frac{1}{x}[\frac{x^2e^{-t(\frac{\pi t}{x^2}+j2\pi f)}}{-2\pi t-j2\pi fx^2}][/tex]
 
Last edited:
No, for example, [itex]\int e^{-t^2}dt\neq-\frac{1}{2t}e^{-t^2}+C[/itex]. Take the derivative of it to convince yourself:

[tex]\frac{d}{dt}\left(-\frac{1}{2t}e^{-t^2}+C\right)=\left(\frac{1}{2t^2}+1\right)e^{-t^2}[/tex]

via the product rule.

In fact, there is no nice antiderivative for [itex]e^{-t^2}[/itex], or your integrand (Unlees you consider the error function to be nice). You can however integrate it over the interval [itex](-\infty,\infty)[/itex] easily by completing the square on the exponent, and using the fact that [itex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^2}dx=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-y^2}dy[/itex], and hence

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^2}dx=\left(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^2}dx\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-y^2}dy\right)^{1/2}=\left(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-(x^2+y^2)}dxdy\right)^{1/2}[/tex]

Which you can integrate by switching to polar coordinates.
 

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