Fourier transform of periodic potential in crystal lattice

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around computing the Fourier transform of a periodic potential in a crystal lattice, specifically the potential given by \( V(x) = \beta \cos\left(\frac{2\pi x}{a}\right) \). Participants are tasked with showing that the Fourier transform is non-zero for only two values of \( k \). The context involves concepts from solid-state physics and quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss rewriting the cosine function in terms of complex exponentials to facilitate integration. There are attempts to evaluate the integral and identify the conditions under which the Fourier transform yields non-zero values. Questions arise regarding the manipulation of the resulting expressions and the implications of the Kronecker delta function.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and suggestions for rewriting expressions. Some participants have reached intermediate results, while others express confusion about specific steps and the implications of their findings. There is a recognition of the need to clarify the role of the Fourier coefficients and the periodicity in the context of Bloch's theorem.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention constraints such as the assumption that \( N \gg 1 \) and the periodic nature of the potential. There is also a reference to the lack of familiarity with Fourier series among some participants, which may affect their understanding of the problem.

vbrasic
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Homework Statement


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Homework Equations


I'm not sure.

The Attempt at a Solution


I started on (i) -- this is where I've gotten so far.

I am asked to compute the Fourier transform of a periodic potential, ##V(x)=\beta \cos(\frac{2\pi x}{a})## such that, $$\tilde{V}(k)=\frac{1}{L}\int_0^LV(x)e^{-ikx}\,dx$$ and hence show that it is non-zero for only two values of ##k##. I have, $$\tilde{V}(k)=\frac{\beta}{L}\int_0^L\cos(\frac{2\pi x}{a})e^{-ikx}\,dx.$$ According to Wolfram, this gives, $$\tilde{V}(k)=\frac{ia\beta e^{-ikL}(-ake^{ikL}+ak\cos(\frac{2\pi L}{a})+2i\pi\sin(\frac{2\pi L}{a}))}{L(a^2k^2-4\pi^2)}.$$ I am also given that ##L=Na##, ##N\in\mathbb{Z}^+##, such that the expression simplifies to, $$\frac{i\beta e^{-ikL}(-ake^{ikL}+ak)}{N(a^2k^2-4\pi^2)}.$$ From this we have, $$\tilde{V}(k)=\frac{ia\beta(ke^{-ikNa}-1)}{N(a^2k^2-4\pi^2)}.$$ However, given this, I have no idea how to show that this is not equal to ##0## for only two values of ##k##. I tried setting ##ke^{-ikNa}-1## to ##0##, such that, $$e^{-ikNa}=\frac{1}{k},$$ and solving for ##k##, however, I'm not sure if this is the correct approach.

Also, ##N\gg 1##.
 
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write \cos(\frac{2\pi x}{a}) in terms of complex exponentials and the first part will pop out immediately.
 
Dr Transport said:
write \cos(\frac{2\pi x}{a}) in terms of complex exponentials and the first part will pop out immediately.
So for the very first part I have, $$\cos(\frac{2\pi x}{a})=\frac{e^{i2\pi x/a}+e^{-i2\pi x/a}}{2}.$$

I'm not sure how this will pull out a term.
 
When you do the integral, you'll get two values of k.
 
Dr Transport said:
When you do the integral, you'll get two values of k.
Okay... so I'll take the integral, $$\frac{\beta}{2L}\int_0^L (e^{i2\pi x/a}+e^{-i2\pi x/a})e^{-ikx}.$$ I get, $$\frac{\beta}{2L}\int_0^Le^{ix(2\pi/a-k)}+e^{-ix(2\pi/a+k)}.$$ This resolves to $$\frac{\beta}{2L}(\frac{2a\sin(L(2\pi/a+k))}{ak+2\pi}).$$ I'm still not sure how I'd manipulate this to pull out two values of ##k##.
 
Leave it as complex exponentials, the integral is the definition of the Kronecker \delta_{ij}
 
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Dr Transport said:
Leave it as complex exponentials, the integral is the definition of the Kronecker \delta_{ij}
Ah. Alright. So by definition, because we are integrating on the bound, ##[0,L]## we will have the following for the integral, $$\beta(\frac{1}{L}\int_0^L e^{-ix(k-2\pi/a)}\,dx+\frac{1}{L}\int_0^Le^{-ix(k+2\pi/a)}\,dx).$$ This evaluates to ##\beta(\delta_{k,\,2\pi/a}+\delta_{k,\,-2\pi/a})##, such that ##k=\pm \frac{2\pi}{a}##?
 
For the second part, we are given $$\psi(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{L}}\Sigma_G\tilde{u_Q}(G)e^{i(Q+G)x}.$$ This is the same as $$e^{iQx}\frac{1}{\sqrt{L}}\Sigma_G\tilde{u_Q}(G)e^{iGx}.$$ This is exactly, Bloch's theorem, ##\psi(x)=e^{ipx}u(x),## where ##u(x)## is periodic. We can then write the Schrödinger equation as, $$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2}(e^{iQx}u(x))+e^{iQx}V(x)u(x)=e^{iQx}Eu(x).$$ This becomes, $$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(-Q^2u(x)+2iQu'(x)+u''(x))+V(x)u(x)=Eu(x).$$ We rewrite this as, $$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}u''(x)-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(2iQ)u'(x)+\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}Q^2u(x)=Eu(x).$$ My professor claims that this is equivalent to, $$\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(G^2+2GQ+Q^2)\tilde{u_Q}(G)+\Sigma_{G'}V(G-G')\tilde{u_Q}(G')=E\tilde{u_Q}(G)\to\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(G+Q)^2\tilde{u_Q}(G)+\Sigma_{G'}V(G-G')\tilde{u_Q}(G')=E\tilde{u_Q}(G).$$ The goal is naturally then to somehow subsitute in the expression we got from part (i) for potential. However, I'm confused on how to do this. I have that ##G=\frac{2n\pi}{a}## from translational invariance arguments. Are the ##G'##s simply the values pulled out by the Kronecker delta from part (i)? And if so, how would one find ##\tilde{u_Q}(G)##?

(Sorry, the reason I'm asking is because I'm not too familiar with Fourier expansions. I'm a visiting student at my current university, and never learned Fourier series at my home university.)
 
  • #10
Yes, the G''s are just the \pm\frac{2\pi n}{a} from the first part. Your resulting equation should be a set of equations for \tilde{u}_Q(G)
 
  • #11
Dr Transport said:
Yes, the G''s are just the \pm\frac{2\pi n}{a} from the first part. Your resulting equation should be a set of equations for \tilde{u}_Q(G)
So we have, $$\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(G+Q)^2+\tilde{V}(G-\frac{2\pi}{a})\tilde{u_Q}(\frac{2\pi}{a})+\tilde{V}(G+\frac{2\pi}{a})\tilde{u_Q}(-\frac{2\pi}{a})=E\tilde{u_Q}(G).$$ We can subsitute ##G=\frac{2n\pi}{a}## into get, $$\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(G+Q)^2+\tilde{V}(\frac{2\pi(n-1)}{a})\tilde{u_Q}(\frac{2\pi}{a})+\tilde{V}(\frac{2\pi(n+1)}{a})\tilde{u_Q}(-\frac{2\pi}{a})=E\tilde{u_Q}(G).$$ But isn't ##\tilde{V}=0## for all values besides ##\pm\frac{2\pi}{a}##?
 
  • #12
your missing a factor of \tilde{u}_Q in the first part of your expressions. Yes, \tilde{V} is zero for everything except \pm \frac{2\pi n}{a}. you can write this as a matrix then find the eigenvalues for the \tilde{u}.
 
  • #13
Alright, so then, $$\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(G+Q)^2\tilde{u_Q}(G)+\frac{\beta}{2}\tilde{u_Q}(\frac{2\pi}{a})+\frac{\beta}{2}\tilde{u_Q}(-\frac{2\pi}{a})=E\tilde{u_Q}(G)?$$
 
  • #14
G = \pm\frac{2\pi n}{a} gives you two equations...
 
  • #15
So for ##G=\frac{2n\pi}{a},## it's, $$\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(\frac{2n\pi}{a}+Q)^2\tilde{u_Q}(\frac{2n\pi}{a})+\tilde{V}(\frac{2n\pi}{a}-\frac{2\pi}{a})\tilde{u_Q}(\frac{2\pi}{a})+\tilde{V}(\frac{2n\pi}{a}+\frac{2\pi}{a})\tilde{u_Q}(-\frac{2\pi}{a})=E\tilde{u_Q}(G),$$ and for ##G=-\frac{2n\pi}{a}## it's, $$\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(-\frac{2n\pi}{a}+Q)^2\tilde{u_Q}(\frac{2n\pi}{a})+\tilde{V}(-\frac{2n\pi}{a}-\frac{2\pi}{a})\tilde{u_Q}(\frac{2\pi}{a})+\tilde{V}(-\frac{2n\pi}{a}+\frac{2\pi}{a})\tilde{u_Q}(-\frac{2\pi}{a})=E\tilde{u_Q}(G)?$$ Sorry, I kind of don't understand why there are two separate values of ##G##; isn't the summation over ##G'##?
 
  • #16
I have to sit down and think about it a little more...
 
  • #17
Thanks for all the help. Expanding that sum over ##G'## is proving very challenging for me because I'm not sure exactly what I'm summing over...
 

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