Free particle, classical vs quantum mechanics

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the analysis of a free particle in quantum mechanics, specifically addressing the expectation value of momentum

at time t=0 and its independence over time. The particle's state is defined as ## \Psi (x, t=0) = \psi (x) e^{ikx} ##, leading to the calculation of

using the integral ## \displaystyle

= \int ^{ \infty} _{- \infty} \Psi (x,t)^* \left( \dfrac{\hbar}{i} \dfrac{ \partial}{\partial x} \right) \Psi (x,t) dx ##. The conclusion confirms that the first integral evaluates to zero, while the second integral contributes ## \hbar k ##, establishing that

is equal to ## \hbar k ## for a normalized distribution.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly wave functions.
  • Familiarity with the concept of expectation values in quantum systems.
  • Knowledge of integration techniques in calculus.
  • Basic understanding of classical mechanics, specifically Newton's laws.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of the time independence of momentum for free particles in quantum mechanics.
  • Explore the relationship between wave functions and probability distributions in quantum mechanics.
  • Learn about the role of normalization in quantum states and its impact on expectation values.
  • Investigate the mathematical techniques used in quantum mechanics, such as Fourier transforms and their applications.
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Students of quantum mechanics, physicists analyzing particle behavior, and educators teaching the principles of classical versus quantum mechanics.

Cogswell
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Homework Statement


Consider first a free particle (Potential energy zero everywhere). When the particle at a given time is prepared in a state ## \psi (x) ## it has <x> = 0 and <p> = 0.
The particle is now prepared in
## \Psi (x, t=0) = \psi (x) e^{ikx} ##

1. Give <p> at time t=0.

2. It can be shown in quantum mechanics that <p> is independent of time for a free particle, in anology to Newton's first law in classical mechanics. Give <x> as a function of time.


Homework Equations


## \displaystyle <p> = \int ^{ \infty} _{- \infty} \Psi (x,t)^* \left( \dfrac{\hbar}{i} \dfrac{ \partial}{\partial x} \right) \Psi (x,t) dx ##


The Attempt at a Solution



So I put Psi into the integral and get:

## \displaystyle <p> = \dfrac{\hbar}{i} \int ^{ \infty} _{- \infty} \psi (x)^* e^{-ikx} \left( \dfrac{ \partial}{\partial x} \right) \psi (x) e^{ikx} dx ##

## \displaystyle <p> = \dfrac{\hbar}{i} \int ^{ \infty} _{- \infty} \psi (x)^* e^{-ikx} \left[ \dfrac{d \psi (x)}{dx} e^{ikx} + ik \psi (x) e^{ikx} \right] dx ##

The exponentials cancel out and I get:

## \displaystyle <p> = \dfrac{\hbar}{i} \int ^{ \infty} _{- \infty} \psi (x)^* \dfrac{d \psi (x)}{dx} dx + \dfrac{ik \hbar}{i} \int ^{ \infty} _{- \infty} \psi (x)^* \psi (x) dx ##


So, for a normalised distribution, the area under the curve wil be 1, and so the second integral will give me ## \hbar k##
What about the first integral?
 
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Cogswell said:
## \displaystyle <p> = \dfrac{\hbar}{i} \int ^{ \infty} _{- \infty} \psi (x)^* \dfrac{d \psi (x)}{dx} dx + \dfrac{ik \hbar}{i} \int ^{ \infty} _{- \infty} \psi (x)^* \psi (x) dx ##


So, for a normalised distribution, the area under the curve wil be 1, and so the second integral will give me ## \hbar k##
What about the first integral?

Can you relate the first integral to some property of the state ##\psi (x)## that was specified at the beginning of the problem statement?
 
Oh right silly me, the first integral is just the expectation value of the momentum of the function ## \psi (x) ## which is given to us as 0.
 

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