Function continuous or not at (0,0)

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kottur
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Homework Statement



[itex]f\rightarrowℝ[/itex], [itex]f(x,y)=\frac{x^{2}y}{x^{6}+y^{2}}[/itex] where [itex](x,y)\neq(0,0)[/itex] and [itex]f(0,0)=0[/itex].

Is the function continuous at [itex](0,0)[/itex]?

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried to find the limit at [itex](0,0)[/itex] so I put [itex]y=x[/itex] into the function [itex]f[/itex] and got the limit 0 when [itex]x\rightarrow0[/itex]. Tthen I put [itex]y=x^{2}[/itex] into [itex]f[/itex] and got the limit 1 when [itex]x\rightarrow0[/itex]. That means that the limit does not exist right?
But the part that says [itex]f(0,0)=0[/itex] confuses me. Does that change the limit?

There is a second part for this problem where I'm supposed to find the first partial derivatives in [itex](0,0)[/itex] or explain why they do not exist but I'd like to understand this first and then try to see if I can do the second part by myself. I think that if the limit does not exist in [itex](0,0)[/itex] then the partial derivatives can not either by definition... But I'm not sure...

Thank you in advance. :smile:
 
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kottur said:

Homework Statement



[itex]f\rightarrowℝ[/itex], [itex]f(x,y)=\frac{x^{2}y}{x^{6}+y^{2}}[/itex] where [itex](x,y)\neq(0,0)[/itex] and [itex]f(0,0)=0[/itex].

Is the function continuous at [itex](0,0)[/itex]?

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried to find the limit at [itex](0,0)[/itex] so I put [itex]y=x[/itex] into the function [itex]f[/itex] and got the limit 0 when [itex]x\rightarrow0[/itex]. Tthen I put [itex]y=x^{2}[/itex] into [itex]f[/itex] and got the limit 1 when [itex]x\rightarrow0[/itex]. That means that the limit does not exist right?
But the part that says [itex]f(0,0)=0[/itex] confuses me. Does that change the limit?

There is a second part for this problem where I'm supposed to find the first partial derivatives in [itex](0,0)[/itex] or explain why they do not exist but I'd like to understand this first and then try to see if I can do the second part by myself. I think that if the limit does not exist in [itex](0,0)[/itex] then the partial derivatives can not either by definition... But I'm not sure...

Thank you in advance. :smile:
You asked:
"But the part that says [itex]f(0,0)=0[/itex] confuses me. Does that change the limit?"​
The answer is no!

The limit as (x,y) → (0.0) has nothing to do with the value of f(0,0). Indeed, this limit can exist even if f(0,0) is undefined.

By The Way: Your solution to this problem is correct. You have shown that the limit does not exist.