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Functionally Determined and 1NF

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  1. May 25, 2015 #1

    WWGD

    User Avatar
    Science Advisor
    Gold Member

    Hi All,
    Say we have a relation R ( i.e., a table in a relational DB ), which has a primary key PK, but R is not

    in 1 NF. I guess we then conclude that PK _does not_ functionally-determine the table, since, after

    the table is put in 1NF, PK is o longer the primary key, right? It seems obviously true, but I have

    been wrong before...

    Thanks.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. May 26, 2015 #2

    Mark44

    Staff: Mentor

    It might help to say that "1 NF" means First Normal Form.
     
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