Functionally Determined and 1NF

[WWGD]

Hi All,
Say we have a relation R ( i.e., a table in a relational DB ), which has a primary key PK, but R is not

in 1 NF. I guess we then conclude that PK _does not_ functionally-determine the table, since, after

the table is put in 1NF, PK is o longer the primary key, right? It seems obviously true, but I have

been wrong before...

Thanks.

 

[Mark44]

It might help to say that "1 NF" means First Normal Form.