I Galilean relativity for 2 frames

AI Thread Summary
Understanding Galilean transformations involves recognizing that two frames moving relative to each other have distinct coordinate systems, with each frame's origin defined at time t=0. The transformation formula x = x' + vt illustrates how coordinates relate between these frames, where x' is from frame B and x from frame A. The discussion emphasizes that inertial frames are defined by the validity of Newton's first law, and a frame is non-inertial if it experiences acceleration. It is clarified that the concept of a reference frame is intrinsic and not dependent on external perspectives; thus, an accelerating object cannot be considered an inertial frame. Overall, the Galilean transformation is applicable only when both frames maintain constant velocities.
  • #51
gionole said:
@jbriggs444 So everything I said is correct ? Right ? Just to be sure.
It was too verbose. I was left wondering what the point was. The part about something moving backward, but not really but yes, moving backward relative to the train frame was very off-putting. Here is that passage:

gionole said:
to me(observer in the train), while ball is dropping, it moves backward, but not in real sense, because while ball is in the air(dropping), train still accelerates, so it moves with increased speed, but ball in the air doesn't feel this increased speed.
There is no such thing as a "real sense". All motion is relative. There is no need to waffle. Pick a frame and describe the ball's motion in that frame. Don't handwave about other frames that you could have used but did not.

gionole said:
Do you mind explaining what you mean here ?
Your conclusion was that:
gionole said:
So Landau’s argument that in all inertial frames, equation of motion of the same system takes the same form seems to be correct if my analysis is correct.
But a conclusion about inertial frames has nothing to do with reasoning that involves accelerating frames. So your talk about accelerating frames was irrelevant.

Reasoning that only addresses the ##x## component of position is one dimensional. You only reasoned about one dimension. So your reasoning was restricted to one dimensional inertial frames of reference that may be in relative motion in that single dimension.

You've dealt with the case of a single object in force-free motion as described in two different one dimensional inertial frames and reasoned that the same force law (no force) applies in both frames.

That is a weak basis on which to conclude that the principle of [Galilean] relativity holds good for all physical force laws and does so in three dimensions.
 
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  • #52
There is no such thing as a "real sense". All motion is relative. There is no need to waffle. Pick a frame and describe the ball's motion in that frame
Ok then we say in train’s frame, ball moves backward and that’s it. Correct ? Hope everything else is correct too ?

That is a weak basis on which to conclude that the principle of [Galilean] relativity holds good for all physical force laws and does so in three
True, but I had to start somewhere and learn. But it holds true for even 3 dimensions and multiple particles right ? I mean Landaus argument
 
  • #53
gionole said:
Ok then we say in train’s frame, ball moves backward and that’s it. Correct
We describe the motion of the ball in a frame quantitatively.

In inertial frames that quantitative description matches all 3 of Newton's Laws of Motion.

In non-inertial frames it doesn't. But we can introduce inertial-forces, which violate Newton's 3rd Law, but allow us to match Newton's Laws 1 & 2.
 

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