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If a theory is gauge invariant and one chooses to fix a particular gauge, having done this is it then possible to make a gauge transformation from this chosen gauge to another gauge, or have we already "spent" the gauge symmetry?
Apologies if this is a really basic question, but I've got myself a bit confused in a particular example in reading a paper on the brane origins of Galilean invariance of galileons http://arxiv.org/pdf/1008.1305v2.pdf (starting on page 9). They carry out this procedure of fixing a particular gauge and then subsequently making a gauge transformation, but I'm slightly confused as to why they can do this?
Apologies if this is a really basic question, but I've got myself a bit confused in a particular example in reading a paper on the brane origins of Galilean invariance of galileons http://arxiv.org/pdf/1008.1305v2.pdf (starting on page 9). They carry out this procedure of fixing a particular gauge and then subsequently making a gauge transformation, but I'm slightly confused as to why they can do this?