GCD of a & b in Ring R: Unique or Not?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of the greatest common divisor (GCD) within the context of rings, specifically questioning its definition, uniqueness, and existence in various types of rings.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the definition of GCD in rings, questioning whether it is well-defined and unique. Some suggest that GCDs exist in specific types of rings, like Euclidean domains and principal ideal domains (PIDs), while others challenge the notion of uniqueness based on definitions and properties of prime decomposition.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants presenting differing views on the definition and uniqueness of GCDs in rings. Some have offered clarifications regarding the conditions under which GCDs may exist, while others are questioning the implications of these definitions.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing debate regarding the uniqueness of GCDs, particularly in relation to the definitions used and the properties of the rings being discussed. Participants are also considering the implications of prime factorization in defining GCDs.

rourky
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1. I am just looking for a defn, I can't find it on the net:
Given a ring R, a, b elements of R, (a?) gcd(a,b) is defined to be?






3. I am guessing that if d/a and d/b and for any other e such that e/a and e/b we have e/d, then d is (a?) gcd of a and b. Is this correct, and is d THE unique gcd? My guess is based mostly on the definition of a ("a", may not be unique) gcd(B), B any subset of R.
 
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http://mathworld.wolfram.com/GreatestCommonDivisor.html

I'm not sure that gcd is well-defined for rings. For example, the real numbers are a ring and it's very difficult to come up with anything sensible for, say, the greatest common divisor of [itex]\pi[/itex] and [itex]e[/itex].

Perhaps there's something missing?
 
GCDs exist in Euclidean domains (i.e. places where you can do the euclidean algorithm) for example, but not rings in general. GCDs, when they exist, are never unique: they are only defined up to multiplication by a unit.

If you have a PID (euclidean domains are a subset of PIDs), then gcd(a,b) is the/a generator of the ideal (a,b) (which exists since ideals are principal).
 
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matt grime said:
GCDs exist in Euclidean domains (i.e. places where you can do the euclidean algorithm) for example, but not rings in general. GCDs, when they exist, are never unique: they are only defined up to multiplication by a unit.

If you have a PID (euclidean domains are a subset of PIDs), then gcd(a,b) is the/a generator of the ideal (a,b) (which exists since ideals are principal).

Well, it depends on your definition of GCD. For any ring which has unique prime decompositions, so for any elements of the ring, [itex]a[/itex] and [itex]b[/itex], we have:
[tex]a=\prod p_i^{a_i}[/tex]
and
[tex]b=\prod p_i^{b_i}[/tex]
The GCD can be defined as:
[tex]\rm{GCD}(a,b)=\prod p_i^{\rm{min}(a_i,b_i)}[/tex]
 
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I don't see how anything 'depends on your definition of GCD'.
 
matt grime said:
I don't see how anything 'depends on your definition of GCD'.

Well [itex]\rm{GCD}(a,b)=\prod p_i^{\rm{min}(a_i,b_i)}[/itex] gives a unique GCD. While defining the GCD as a generator of the of the ideal [itex]<a,b>[/itex] may not.
 
No, it doesn't give any uniqueness. If p is a prime, so is up for any unit u. Prime decomposition is only unique up to re-ordering and units. Your GCD is only defined up to associates, just like any other GCD. The only reason we think GCD is unique in Z, is because we have the > relation, and think that 'greatest' means 'largest in value'.
 
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