GR & QM: When Do They Disagree?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter H_A_Landman
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Gr Qm
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the relationship and potential conflicts between General Relativity (GR) and Quantum Mechanics (QM), particularly focusing on the implications of gravitational time dilation and energy-frequency relationships. Participants explore theoretical aspects, experimental evidence, and the conditions under which these theories may disagree.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Experimental/applied

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the formula for gravitational time dilation and argues that it implies an exponential relationship between energy and frequency in GR, contrasting it with the linear relationship in QM as described by E = hν.
  • Another participant challenges this view, asserting that time dilation is not a frequency and clarifying that QM does not universally state that frequencies are linearly proportional to energy, providing examples from molecular and harmonic oscillator systems.
  • A third participant notes the vagueness of the term "frequencies of things" and questions the assumption of uniform scaling laws across different physical systems.
  • Some participants express that without a clear definition of what is being compared in terms of frequency and energy, there may be no contradiction between GR and QM.
  • One participant summarizes the perceived conflict, reiterating that GR suggests time dilation leads to infinite values at black hole event horizons, while QM implies zero frequency and energy at the same point, raising questions about the underlying mechanics.
  • A later post introduces the Colella-Overhauser-Werner experiment as an example where gravitational time dilation affects quantum interference, highlighting that while GR and QM agree at first order, they diverge at larger scales.
  • Another participant questions the applicability of non-relativistic quantum mechanics in relativistic contexts, suggesting that the mismatch persists even at low speeds.
  • One participant expresses uncertainty about whether relativistic quantum mechanics resolves the discrepancies between GR and QM.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the relationship between GR and QM, with multiple competing views and unresolved questions regarding the conditions under which each theory applies and how they may conflict.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight limitations in definitions and assumptions regarding energy and frequency relationships, as well as the scope of applicability for both GR and QM in various contexts.

H_A_Landman
Messages
59
Reaction score
8
The exact formula for gravitational time dilation is [tex]T_d = exp(m\phi / mc^2)[/tex]. (We usually cancel out the ms, but I want to show this as a ratio of energies.) Since [tex]m\phi[/tex] is the potential energy, this says that the rates or frequencies of things in GR depend exponentially on their energy. On the other hand, [tex]E = h\nu[/tex] implies that the frequencies of things in QM are linearly proportional to their energy. It's quite obvious that these things cannot both be universally true. So, which one is wrong, and when?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I'm no expert on relativity, but I think you're confusing things. Time dilation isn't a frequency. A rate isn't a frequency. QM doesn't say that the "frequencies of things" are linearly proportional to their energy. E = hν relates the energy and frequency of a photon, specifically.

Consider for example a linear rotor, such as a diatomic molecule. The energy levels are given by E = BJ(J+1) and the angular momentum is ħ√{J(J+1)}. They are related by E = p2/2I. Now the angular momentum is directly proportional to the frequency of rotation, p = 2πIv. So the energy is proportional to the square of the frequency. A photon emitted or absorbed in a transition between two levels will have a frequency given by ΔE = hvphoton, but that is a different thing.

Or consider a harmonic oscillator. Its energy levels are E = (n+1/2)hv. A transition between adjacent levels has the energy hv, so the photon will have the same frequency as the oscillator. But the frequency of the oscillator doesn't change with energy. In a higher energy state, it is oscillating with greater amplitude and speed, but at the same frequency.
 
"frequencies of things" is vague, and assumes exactly the same scaling laws in all cases, which we know is wrong. A spring feels a force proportional to r. A charged body feels a force proportional to 1/r2.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Dale
I am with @Vanadium 50 on this. In QM the frequency of what scales linearly with which energy? In GR the frequency of what scales exponentially with which energy? Unless both the "what" and the "which" match between the two cases, there is no contradiction and no need to claim one must be wrong.
 
H_A_Landman said:
Summary: In QM frequencies scale linearly with energy, but in GR they scale exponentially. These can't both be true.

The exact formula for gravitational time dilation is [tex]T_d = exp(m\phi / mc^2)[/tex]. (We usually cancel out the ms, but I want to show this as a ratio of energies.) Since [tex]m\phi[/tex] is the potential energy, this says that the rates or frequencies of things in GR depend exponentially on their energy. On the other hand, [tex]E = h\nu[/tex] implies that the frequencies of things in QM are linearly proportional to their energy. It's quite obvious that these things cannot both be universally true. So, which one is wrong, and when?
GR: Time dilation is infinite at the event horizon of a black hole.

QM: Well, in that case everything has zero frequency and zero energy at the event horizon of a black hole. ## exp(m\phi / mc^2) ## should be infinite at the event horizon of a black hole.
So how does that work? Does the numerator go to infinity, or does the denominator go to zero, or does something else happen?
 
Since people seem to be having trouble seeing a concrete example, let's take the Colella-Overhauser-Werner experiment as our starting point (R. Colella, A. W. Overhauser, and S. A. Werner, “Observation of Gravitationally Induced Quantum Interference,” Phys. Rev. Lett. 34 (23), 1472–1475 (1975)). In this, a neutron beam is split into a part that goes vertical then horizontal, and a part that goes horizontal then vertical (similar to a Mach-Zender interferometer). The vertical parts are assumed identical and cancel out. But the horizontal parts are at different altitudes and have different gravitational time dilations, causing a relative phase shift that is visible when the two parts interfere. This phase shift is a function of the gravitational potential energy difference between a neutron on the upper path and one on the lower path. QM predicts that this dependence will be linear; GR predicts that there are higher-order terms (see e.g. https://aapt.scitation.org/doi/abs/10.1119/1.19454 for a recent survey and analysis). They agree to first order, but for large deltas they disagree and can't both be right.
 
You are surprised that non-relativistic quantum mechanics doesn't work in the relativistic regime?
 
This isn't necessarily relativistic. The mismatch is still there in the low-speed limit, or even at zero speed. Also, are you sure that relativistic QM solves the problem? If it did (say, if the Dirac equation matched GR even though the Schrödinger equation doesn't) then that would be a satisfactory answer to my question.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 473 ·
16
Replies
473
Views
33K
  • · Replies 69 ·
3
Replies
69
Views
8K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 21 ·
Replies
21
Views
4K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
2K