Gram-Schmidt Orthonormalization .... Garling, Corollary 11.4.2 ....

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the proof of Corollary 11.4.2 from D. J. H. Garling's "A Course in Mathematical Analysis: Volume II," specifically regarding the claim that $$\text{span}( e_{k + 1}, \ldots, e_d ) \subseteq W^{ \bot }$$. Participants confirm that the proof relies on Theorem 11.4.1, which pertains to Gram-Schmidt Orthonormalization. A rigorous argument is provided, demonstrating that if $1\leqslant i\leqslant k$ and $k+1\leqslant j\leqslant d$, then $\langle e_i,e_j\rangle = 0$, establishing that $e_j$ is orthogonal to all elements in $W$. Thus, the conclusion that $$\text{span}(e_{k+1},\ldots,e_d) \subseteq W^\bot$$ is validated.

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  • Understanding of Gram-Schmidt Orthonormalization
  • Familiarity with metric spaces and normed spaces
  • Knowledge of linear algebra concepts, particularly orthogonality
  • Ability to interpret mathematical proofs and theorems
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  • Study the details of Theorem 11.4.1 in Garling's text
  • Review the properties of orthogonal projections in vector spaces
  • Explore applications of Gram-Schmidt Orthonormalization in various mathematical contexts
  • Practice formulating rigorous proofs in linear algebra
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I am reading D. J. H. Garling's book: "A Course in Mathematical Analysis: Volume II: Metric and Topological Spaces, Functions of a Vector Variable" ... ...

I am focused on Chapter 11: Metric Spaces and Normed Spaces ... ...

I need some help to fully understand the proof of Corollary 11.4.2 ...Garling's statement and proof of Corollary 11.4.2 reads as follows:View attachment 8971In the third sentence of the above proof by Garling we read that:

$$\text{span}( e_{k + 1}, \ ... \ ... , e_d ) \subseteq W^{ \bot }$$ Although this claim looks very plausible I am unable to formulate a rigorous demonstration of its truth ...

Can someone provide a rigorous argument showing that $$\text{span}( e_{k + 1}, \ ... \ ... , e_d ) \subseteq W^{ \bot }$$ ... ... ?
Help will be appreciated ...

Peter
==========================================================================================

Since I suspect a rigorous proof of the above claim of interest will involve Theorem 11.4.1 ( Gram-Schmidt Orthonormalization ... ) ... I am providing text of the same ... as follows:
View attachment 8972
View attachment 8973
Hope that helps ...

Peter
 

Attachments

  • Garling - Corollary 11.4.2 ... .png
    Garling - Corollary 11.4.2 ... .png
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  • Garling - 1 - Theorem 11.4.1 ... G_S Orthonormalisation plus Remarks  ... PART 1 .png
    Garling - 1 - Theorem 11.4.1 ... G_S Orthonormalisation plus Remarks ... PART 1 .png
    47.6 KB · Views: 127
  • Garling - 2 - Theorem 11.4.1 ... G_S Orthonormalisation plus Remarks  ... PART 2 ... .png
    Garling - 2 - Theorem 11.4.1 ... G_S Orthonormalisation plus Remarks ... PART 2 ... .png
    7.6 KB · Views: 115
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Peter said:
Can someone provide a rigorous argument showing that $$\text{span}( e_{k + 1}, \ ... \ ... , e_d ) \subseteq W^{ \bot }$$ ... ... ?
Peter
If $1\leqslant i\leqslant k$ and $k+1\leqslant j\leqslant d$ then $\langle e_i,e_j\rangle = 0$. So $e_j$ is orthogonal to each member of the orthonormal basis of $W$, and therefore orthogonal to everything in $W$. In other words, $e_j\in W^\bot$. Since that holds for all $j$ with $k+1\leqslant j \leqslant d$, it follows that $\text{span}(e_{k+1},\ldots,e_d) \subseteq W^\bot$.
 
Opalg said:
If $1\leqslant i\leqslant k$ and $k+1\leqslant j\leqslant d$ then $\langle e_i,e_j\rangle = 0$. So $e_j$ is orthogonal to each member of the orthonormal basis of $W$, and therefore orthogonal to everything in $W$. In other words, $e_j\in W^\bot$. Since that holds for all $j$ with $k+1\leqslant j \leqslant d$, it follows that $\text{span}(e_{k+1},\ldots,e_d) \subseteq W^\bot$.
Thanks for the help, Opalg ...

Much appreciated!

Peter
 

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