Groups that cannot be the direct product of subgroups

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SUMMARY

Neither the group ##Z_{p^n}## nor the group ##\mathbb{Z}## can be expressed as a direct product of their proper subgroups. The proof for ##Z_{p^n}## relies on the contradiction that if it were a direct product of cyclic subgroups, their orders would not be pairwise relatively prime, contradicting the cyclic nature of the group. Similarly, the proof for ##\mathbb{Z}## shows that if it were a direct product of its proper subgroups, it would not remain cyclic, leading to a contradiction. The discussion highlights the importance of understanding the properties of cyclic groups and their subgroups in group theory.

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  • Familiarity with the properties of direct products of groups.
  • Knowledge of isomorphism in the context of group theory.
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Mathematics students, particularly those studying abstract algebra, group theorists, and anyone interested in the properties of cyclic groups and their subgroups.

Bashyboy
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Homework Statement


I am trying to show that neither ##Z_{p^n}## nor ##\mathbb{Z}## can be written as any family of its proper subgroups.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



First, I believe this solution (http://www.auburn.edu/~huanghu/math7310/7310-hw2-answer.pdf see problem 6) is falls short of what it purports to prove, since it only proves that ##Z_{p^n}## and ##\mathbb{Z}## cannot be the direct product of two of its subgroups. Am I right? If so, here are my proofs.

First we deal with ##Z_{p^n}##. By way of contradiction, suppose that it is the direct product of subgroups ##H_1 \times ... \times H_k##, each of which must be cyclic since ##Z_{p^n}## is cyclic. Then the order of this product is ##p^n##. Moreover, ##|H_i|## divides the order of the product, and therefore ##|H_i| = p^{n_i}## for some ##n_i =1,...,n##. But this means that the orders of the subgroups are not pairwise relatively prime and therefore cannot be cyclic, which is a contradiction.

Here's the only problem I can identify with the above proof. Although I have already proven that a product of cyclic groups is cyclic iff their orders are pairwise relatively prime, this fact hasn't yet appeared at the point of this problem in the book, so strictly speaking it isn't available. So, how would one proof it without appeal to this theorem.

Here is a proof of the same fact concerning ##\mathbb{Z}##. By way of contradiction, suppose that it is the direct product ##\prod_{n \in I} n \mathbb{Z}##. Now, since ##\mathbb{Z}## is an infinite cyclic group, each proper subgroup is cyclic to ##\mathbb{Z}##. Hence, ##\prod_{n \in I} n \mathbb{Z} \simeq \prod_{n \in I} \mathbb{Z}##. But this product is not cyclic, for if ##(z_n)_{n \in I}## is a generator of it, and ##e_k \in \prod_{n \in I} \mathbb{Z}## has ##1## in its ##k##-th coordinate and zeros elsewhere, then ##(pz_n)_{n \in I} = e_k## implies ##z_i = 0## for every ##i \neq k##. But since this holds for every ##k \in I##, we must have ##z_i = 0## for every ##i \in I##. But zero cannot generate the product ##\prod_{n \in I} \mathbb{Z}##, which is a contradiction.

Does this seem right?
 
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Drats! I just read somewhere that isomorphism is not necessarily preserved by products of groups, so my proof for ##\mathbb{Z}## may fail...Is this true? Is there a way to fix it?

EDIT: Never mind. I products should preserve isomorphism.
 
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Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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