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If f(x) if big-theta of g(x), is it also always the case then that g(x) is big-theta of f(x)?
The discussion confirms that if \( f(x) \) is big-theta of \( g(x) \), then \( g(x) \) is also big-theta of \( f(x) \). This is established through the definition of big-theta, which states that there exist positive constants \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) such that \( C_1g(x) \leq f(x) \leq C_2g(x) \) for sufficiently large \( x \). The conversation also highlights that the symmetry holds true primarily for nonnegative functions, while the behavior of negative functions requires careful consideration of the definition used. References to Wikipedia and a specific PDF document provide additional context on the properties of big-theta notation.
PREREQUISITESMathematicians, computer scientists, and software engineers involved in algorithm analysis and performance optimization will benefit from this discussion, particularly those interested in the nuances of asymptotic notation.
Evgeny.Makarov said:Affirmative. (The forum requires a 5-character minimum reply, so I could not just answer "yes".)
Why ?Evgeny.Makarov said:Affirmative. (The forum requires a 5-character minimum reply, so I could not just answer "yes".)
Sorry, I was considering big O and not big theta :( I thought there were the same :(Evgeny.Makarov said:-