Having a difficult time with supremum proof

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the supremum of the sum of two sets, A and B, where a = sup(A) and b = sup(B), is equal to a + b. The subject area is real analysis, specifically focusing on properties of supremums and set operations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the definition of supremum and its implications, questioning how to demonstrate that a + b serves as an upper bound for A + B. There are attempts to clarify the mathematical definition of supremum and its properties, as well as discussions on constructing sequences that converge to the supremum.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing insights and clarifying definitions. Some guidance has been provided regarding the steps needed to prove the properties of supremums, but there is no explicit consensus on the approach to take. Multiple interpretations and methods are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of understanding that the sets A and B may not have maximum elements, which complicates the proof. There is an emphasis on the need to formalize intuitions and clarify definitions related to upper bounds and supremums.

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Homework Statement



Suppose a = sup(A) and b = sup(B). Let A + B = \left\{x + y;x\inA; y\inB\right\}. Show that a + b = sup(A + B).

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I'm honestly not sure where to start. Any help guys?
 
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Well, a=sup(A), and b=sup(B). What does that mean for you??

You need to show a+b=sup(A+B). What does that mean?? What do you need to prove?
 
micromass said:
Well, a=sup(A), and b=sup(B). What does that mean for you??

You need to show a+b=sup(A+B). What does that mean?? What do you need to prove?

I suppose saying I have no clue where to start was a bit of an overstatement.

a is not only the upperbound of A but the smallest possible upperbound. Same for b/B. This is the definition of a supremum.

When the sets are added together, the supremum of that new set, call it C, is the same as the supremum's of sets A and B individually added together. That is, c=sup(A+B)=sup(C)=a+b.

Here is my intuition: if you take the largest values from set A and set B and add them together, this is the greatest number in (A+B). Call this value z. The supremum of (A+B) lies at the next incremental value greater than z. Does this make sense?
 
SMG75 said:
When the sets are added together, the supremum of that new set, call it C, is the same as the supremum's of sets A and B individually added together. That is, c=sup(A+B)=sup(C)=a+b.

Yes, this is what we want to show.

SMG75 said:
Here is my intuition: if you take the largest values from set A and set B and add them together, this is the greatest number in (A+B). Call this value z. The supremum of (A+B) lies at the next incremental value greater than z. Does this make sense?

Ah, but you don't know A or B has a largest value! This is only true if max(A) = sup(A), and max(B) = sup(B).

Go through your notes/book. What is the mathematical definition of a supremum? Least upper bound is not enough.
 
gb7nash said:
Yes, this is what we want to show.



Ah, but you don't know A or B has a largest value! This is only true if max(A) = sup(A), and max(B) = sup(B).

Go through your notes/book. What is the mathematical definition of a supremum? Least upper bound is not enough.

If S is a nonempty subset of numbers, then M=sup(S) if and only if M is an upperbound for S AND for any z>0, M-z is not an upperbound for S.

Is this a solid definition?
 
SMG75 said:
If S is a nonempty subset of numbers, then M=sup(S) if and only if M is an upperbound for S AND for any z>0, M-z is not an upperbound for S.

Is this a solid definition?

Almost. You need to say mathematically what it means for M-z to not be an upperbound for S:

M=sup(S) if and only if M is an upperbound for S AND for any z>0, there exists an s in S such that s > M-z.

I wish I could draw a number line to illustrate this, but this basically says that if M is a supremum, we can choose any z>0 and we'll always find a value between M-z and M that's in S.
 
gb7nash said:
Almost. You need to say mathematically what it means for M-z to not be an upperbound for S:

M=sup(S) if and only if M is an upperbound for S AND for any z>0, there exists an s in S such that s > M-z.

I wish I could draw a number line to illustrate this, but this basically says that if M is a supremum, we can choose any z>0 and we'll always find a value between M-z and M that's in S.

That makes perfect sense, actually. Where should I go from here?
 
Well, we need to prove two things:

1) a+b is an upperbound.
2) For a fixed z>0, there exists s in A+B such that s > a+b-z

For 1), How do you show a value is an upperbound of a set?
 
gb7nash said:
Well, we need to prove two things:

1) a+b is an upperbound.
2) For a fixed z>0, there exists s in A+B such that s > a+b-z

For 1), How do you show a value is an upperbound of a set?

Let A_{w}=set of whole parts of elements of A+B
A_{w} is bounded from above because A+B is bounded. Let a_{w}=max(A_{w}. And let A_{1} \subseteq A+B be the subset of A+B containing all elements that begin a_{w}. ...(decimal expansion). Assume a_{w} \geq 0. Let a_{1}=max (1/10)'s digit of all elements in A+B. Let A_{2} \subseteq A_{1} be the subset of all elements in A_{1} beginning a_{w}.a_{1}...
Continue in this manner...
Let C=a_{w}.a_{1}a_{2}a_{3}...
Claim: C=sup(A+B)
given any x\inA+B, a_{w} \geq the whole part of x. If they're equal, a_{1} \geq the (1/10)'s digit of x. If these are equal, a_{2} \geq (1/100)'s digit of x...
For any n\geq1 there is an element of A\niX_{n} such that X_{n}=a_{w}.a_{1}a_{2}a_{3}...a_{n}
\left|C-X_{n}\right|\leq\frac{1}{10^{n}}, so any number less than s-\frac{1}{10^{n}} is not an upperbound. Since this is true for all n, no number below C is an upperbound. Thus, C=sup(A+B)=a+b.

Am I way off here?
 
  • #10
The part that says \left and \right is supposed to be absolute value. I'm not sure how to input that.
 
  • #11
Can anyone tell me if I'm on the right track here?
 
  • #12
I don't see what your post 9 actually has to do with proving that sup(A+B)=a+b...
You're making it way more complicated than it needs to be.

First, you need to prove that a+b is an upper bound of A+B. For that, take x+y in A+B. Can you prove that x+y\leq a+b?
 
  • #13
micromass said:
I don't see what your post 9 actually has to do with proving that sup(A+B)=a+b...
You're making it way more complicated than it needs to be.

First, you need to prove that a+b is an upper bound of A+B. For that, take x+y in A+B. Can you prove that x+y\leq a+b?

Well, since x\inA, it is by definition less than a, which is the upperbound of A. Similarly, y is less than b. Therefore, x+y\leqa+b. I'm not sure how to formalize this intuition, though.
 
  • #14
SMG75 said:
Well, since x\inA, it is by definition less than a, which is the upperbound of A. Similarly, y is less than b. Therefore, x+y\leqa+b. I'm not sure how to formalize this intuition, though.

Yes, that's ok. This proves that a+b is an upper bound of A+B. Now prove that it is the least upper bound...
 
  • #15
micromass said:
Yes, that's ok. This proves that a+b is an upper bound of A+B. Now prove that it is the least upper bound...

I'm a little stuck in thinking about this. Intuitively, I know a is the least upperbound of A by definition, and b is the least upperbound of B, similarly. Having a least upperbound of A+B greater than a+b implies that either a or b was not a least upperbound to begin with. I'm not sure where to go from here...
 
  • #16
You could prove that there exists a sequence in A+B that converges to a+b.

In general:
If z is an upper bound of a set Z, and if there exists a sequence (z_n)_n in Z that converges to z, then z is the supremum of Z.

Now, try to prove that "in general"-statement, and try to see why such a sequence should exist.
 
  • #17
micromass said:
You could prove that there exists a sequence in A+B that converges to a+b.

In general:
If z is an upper bound of a set Z, and if there exists a sequence (z_n)_n in Z that converges to z, then z is the supremum of Z.

Now, try to prove that "in general"-statement, and try to see why such a sequence should exist.

I think I was following well until this point, but now I'm totally lost. Would you mind explaining this? By the way, I really appreciate the help.
 
  • #18
SMG75 said:
I think I was following well until this point, but now I'm totally lost. Would you mind explaining this? By the way, I really appreciate the help.

You did see sequences yet, did you??

Well, assume that z is an upper bound of Z, and let's say that there are element z_n\in Z such that z_n\rightarrow z. Then I claim that z is the least upper bound.

Let's try to prove this.
Let's assume that w is another upper bound of Z. We will want to prove that z\leq w. Do you follow until here?? Can you prove this?
 
  • #19
micromass said:
You did see sequences yet, did you??

Well, assume that z is an upper bound of Z, and let's say that there are element z_n\in Z such that z_n\rightarrow z. Then I claim that z is the least upper bound.

Let's try to prove this.
Let's assume that w is another upper bound of Z. We will want to prove that z\leq w. Do you follow until here?? Can you prove this?

Yes, I follow until there. I'm not sure how I prove that, though...
 
  • #20
SMG75 said:
Yes, I follow until there. I'm not sure how I prove that, though...

z_n\leq w. Now take the limit...
 
  • #21
Personally, I wouldn't use "sequences". Certainly if x is any member of A, then x< a and if y is any member of B, then y< b. It follows that x+ y< a+ b so a+ b certainly if an upper bound for A+ B.

Now, suppose z< a+ b and let x be any member of A. then b> z- x and, since b is the least upper bound for B, there exist y in B such that z-x< y< b. What can you say about x+ y?
 
  • #22
HallsofIvy said:
Personally, I wouldn't use "sequences". Certainly if x is any member of A, then x< a and if y is any member of B, then y< b. It follows that x+ y< a+ b so a+ b certainly if an upper bound for A+ B.

Now, suppose z< a+ b and let x be any member of A. then b> z- x and, since b is the least upper bound for B, there exist y in B such that z-x< y< b. What can you say about x+ y?

I'm mostly confused by b>z-x in your post. Can you explain why that is true?
 

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